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Tradition or Scripture

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RipponRedeaux

Well-Known Member
Yeshua1 said:
Except that it narrows down to the specific Son of man, the One of Daniel prophesy!
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You did not interact with anything in my post which you quoted. That's normal for you. You stand out in that regard. What's the point of quoting some's entire post and not commenting on any of it?

I asked you about a dozen times to explain Ps. 8:6-8. You gave me absolutely nothing. That's your normal pattern of behavior for any topic.

Verses 4-8 of Ps. 8 deal with humanity; not Christ. Go to the NKJV. In Daniel 7:13 it has Son of Man. In Psalm 8:4 it has son of man. Do you notice the difference? In Hebrews 2:16 it has son of man. Do you see now? Do you understand? Son of Man refers to Christ. But when it has son of man it refers to people.
 
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Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
RipponRedeaux said:
You did not interact with anything in my post which you quoted. That's normal for you. You stand out in that regard. What's the point of quoting some's entire post and not commenting on any of it?

I asked you about a dozen times to explain Ps. 8:6-8. You gave me absolutely nothing. That's your normal pattern of behavior for any topic.

Verses 4-8 of Ps. 8 deal with humanity; not Christ. Go to the NKJV. In Daniel 7:13 it has Son of Man. In Psalm 8:4 it has son of man. Do you notice the difference? In Hebrews 2:16 it has son of man. Do you see now? Do you understand? Son of Man refers to Christ. But when it has son of man it refers to people.
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The Formal Translations see this as being Son of Man!
 
R

RipponRedeaux

Well-Known Member
Yeshua1 said:
Yes
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Well then, if you are so all fired up about formal translations, I had quoted from one --the NKJV. For Psalm 8:4 it has son of man. I had already spelled that out for you. It does not have Son of Man as Daniel 7:13 has it. The words son of man refer to humanity, whereas Son of Man refers to Christ. I plainly said all of this in post #121. You have very little to no comprehension skills. Please note that the NKJV does not capitalize those words in Psalm 8:4. It's done for the reason that I have repeatedly told you.
 
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Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
RipponRedeaux said:
Well then, if you are so all fired up about formal translations, I had quoted from one --the NKJV. For Psalm 8:4 it has son of man. I had already spelled that out for you. It does not have Son of Man as Daniel 7:13 has it. The words son of man refer to humanity, whereas Son of Man refers to Christ. I plainly said all of this in post #121. You have very little to no comprehension skills. Please note that the NKJV does not capitalize those words in Psalm 8:4. It's done for the reason that I have repeatedly told you.
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Still see the him being mentioned there as in the ultimate sense referring to Lord Jesus!
 
R

RipponRedeaux

Well-Known Member
Yeshua1 said:
Still see the him being mentioned there as in the ultimate sense referring to Lord Jesus!
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As usual, you made no comment on my post, yet you quoted it in full. You have not changed your M.O. in all these years.
You just repeat a mantra as if that clears away all opposition. How silly of you.
 
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