Hello Herbert, only have a few minutes, so will just hit a few of these comments for now. Wish you had got them on here a little sooner, lol.
I have a couple questions:
1. You say that you do not view the positions and doctrines you hold to to be "divine revelation," but that you believe them to be "based on" Divine Revelation. I'd ask you, then, where do your positions stop and where does divine revelation begin? If you, for example, hold to the belief that Christ is the Son of God, is that not a doctrine or belief which is rightly understood as "divine revelation"? If so, how can you say that your positions and doctrines aren't themselves (in some cases, at least) divinely revealed truths but are only "based upon the Word of God"?
Because...they've already been revealed, lol.
In other words, Herbert, I am distinguishing between what is revealed in God's Word and "new revelation," from which traditions completely unrelated to, and often in contradiction to the Word of God arise.
My embrace of a tradition that arises solely from Scripture (i.e., partaking of Communion, water baptizing people in the Name of Christ, fellow-shipping with other Christians, et cetera) can be validated by taking someone to the related text. They do not, as you suggest in regards to indulgences, rely on the Doctrinal Distinctives of the fellowship I am associated with.
2. Some of the doctrines we hold to are essential to the Faith. Others aren't, correct? So there should probably be some distinction drawn between those matters which are, for all christians, to be held dogmatically and those matters about which differences in perspective may be acceptable. For example, Christ's identity as the Son of God is a non-negotiable of the Faith. But the positions we may hold to concerning, for example, the way by which God can foreordain certain events without limiting the free exercise of human wills are matters which are not necessarily divinely-revealed but about which there may remain some difference in perspective.
I think we could make a case of distinction between what me might term "essential Doctrine" and what is non-essential, but it would not change that both are to be tested in light of Scripture.
In the Baptist section there has been much debate as to what the Baptism with the Holy Ghost means. So in order for what it means to be discovered, how else would we do that except to look at what is actually taught in Scripture concerning this Doctrine.
Now we have many views which for some are traditional, because the teaching they embrace goes back generations, even centuries. But we can back all the way back to First Century Writings to have an unbiased (except for that of the Writers and God Himself) teaching on that subject.
So what is the correct understanding of the Baptism with the Holy Ghost?
1. Immersion into God;
2. Empowerment of believers already saved;
3. A "second blessing" at which time believers become "more spiritual;"
4. A public validation of a spiritual event;
You might have an option you could present to add to that list, but we still go back to...how do we verify what the Baptism with the Holy Ghost is?
But I would disagree that we can set essential doctrine apart from Doctrine as a whole. To be in error on even a slight matter is not something we can "live with," right? If leadership is teaching something that is error, even though it is not what might be considered essential doctrine, we would still seek to correct that error with the Word of God, right? An example might be the preaching that eating pork is forbidden Christians. This might seem to be non-essential on the surface, and a gray area to some, because we have a principle that applies that makes it a little more complicated, which is, if someone believes that eating pork is not forbidden to the Christian, then for him...it is. See the problem there? But is that what the Word of God teaches?
For example, Christ's identity as the Son of God is a non-negotiable of the Faith. But the positions we may hold to concerning, for example, the way by which God can foreordain certain events without limiting the free exercise of human wills are matters which are not necessarily divinely-revealed but about which there may remain some difference in perspective.
The two are both essential doctrines which are non-negotiable, my authority in making that statement the Word of God. One being in error as to the Person of Christ is not a "worse error" than one denying that God is Sovereign. God fore-ordaining events is unrelated to the debate about free will, whether salvific in context or temporal. It is through the process of progressive revelation that these two issues become understood as inter-related, and to divorce one from the other leaves one with a faulty understanding of salvation in Christ itself.
The essential Doctrine of the Gospel is that man is born spiritually dead and outside of relationship with God. That is not a condition that fell upon all born, it is a consequence of Adam's sin. There was no free will that landed man in a natural condition, and there is no free will that can remedy that solution. The error of thinking "I repented, I believed, I had faith in Christ" ignores the fact that only God can enlighten men to the spiritual truths of God. Man has no capacity for the spiritual things of God, only for those things which are relevant to his own spirit, that is, that which is natural to his natural condition. This is true in the Old Testament, and more especially true in the New, because we have in the New the beginning of relationship with God through the New Covenant. In the Old, the benefits of the New Covenant remained promise, but Christ has established the New through His death, and entrance into relationship through the New Covenant...
...has nothing to do with "Free Will."
It has everything to do with the consistent method God uses to bring men into relationship with Himself, that is, through the enlightening men gain by the revelation God provides.
The record of that revelation is in Scripture, not tradition. In the Old Testament, most would agree revelation in regards to Atonement and Reconciliation is limited. The Gospel begins in Genesis 3:15 but it is not until Acts 2 that an understanding of the Redemptive Plan of God is revealed to men. So we look at "traditional doctrines" embraced by various groups, and can, by comparing those traditional doctrines verify whether they are Biblical or not.
2. Where does the Bible teach us that we are supposed to, understanding there'd be widespread disagreement among believers, create for ourselves a set of doctrines and beliefs which are not themselves divinely-revealed, but are instead, based upon our best thinking "based upon Divine Revelation... That is, the Word of God." and proceed as Christians according to this framework of our own Biblically-based creation? In other words, since your statement here sounds as though it's affirming a sort of "Sola Scriptura" approach to the establishment of Christian doctrine, where does the Bible Alone teach the Bible Alone in such a way as to justify the approach to doctrinal affirmation which you've described?
If I gave you the impression that I think there can be tradition apart from a Scriptural basis, I apologize. That was not the intent of my statement, so hopefully I can correct that.
The "widespread disagreement" you say the Bible understood would arise is not actually a valid concept. At every point the Word of God has been for the purpose...of correcting that which brings people into conflict. Paul addresses, before anything else, sectarian division among the Corinthians. To those in Galatia he addresses the error of merging Judaism with Christianity.
He does not give rise to the concept that we can "create for ourselves a set of doctrines and beliefs which are not themselves divinely-revealed, but are instead, based upon our best thinking "based upon Divine Revelation." The opposite is true, and evidenced in the fact that he, as well as the other Writers (who wrote to instruct)...quote Scripture.
Again, we might see a "gray area" in regards to the cultural differences between Jews and Gentiles. There is no mandate for the Jew to shed his heritage, but the Covenant of Law. A Jewish Christian has, in my view (see where I point out something that I classify a an opinion? lol), all the right in the world as a Christian to celebrate Passover. But when he teaches it as a Christian tradition based on Scripture, one which all Christians must observe, would you agree that we could easily show the error of that?
And how would we do that, Herbert?
Continued...