Two baptisms: Which is which?

[awaken]

The bible is very clear, Ephesians 4:5 "one Lord, one faith, one baptism."

Anyone who believes in more than one baptism is a heretic and anti-bible.

The "one baptism" is the water baptism wherein we publicly display our faith in the death, burial, and resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ.

There is a HUGE difference between baptism and filling. Baptism is you in the water. Filling is the water in you.

Some say that we are baptized by the Holy Spirit at the time of our conversion but that is a misunderstanding of the term "baptidzo." What is being taught is that, at the time of our conversion, the Holy Spirit places us in the Body of Christ, and immerses us into His church, work, and ministry.

One Lord. One faith. One baptism.

Only Jesus can do that..not water!
The only baptism mentioned that JESUS alone does is the Baptism in the Holy Spirit!
Man can baptize us in water!

Jesus was baptized in water and in the Holy Spirit! So which one do you think saved him? Your logic does not add up! Neither saves you!
Jesus was God he did not have to be born again! But he was annointed and empowered!
Faith in the complete work of Jesus Christ is what saves..nothing added!

 

[Thomas Helwys]

THey believed and were baptized before they laid hands on them..before they received the Holy Spirit!

Jesus walking and teaching the disciples was the transitional period! Acts is them walking out what Jesus died and rose for them to have!
You calling Acts a transitional period is a way for you to keep your theories!

I don't know why you can't get it through your head that this is one time where the giving of the HS was delayed so that the apostles could give personal witness to the Jews to the fact that the Gospel was indeed for non-Jews. This was the first instance of non-Jews receiving the Gospel. Have you forgotten how despised the Samaritans were by the Jews? Do you not remember the parable of Jesus about this? God delayed giving the HS to these Samaritans so that the apostles could confirm firsthand by eyewitness account that the Gospel was for the Samaritans, as well. Do you think that if the Jews had heard that the Samaritans had received the Gospel that they would have believed it without the eyewitness testimony of the apostles? No! That's why the giving of the HS to the Samaritans was delayed until the apostles could witness it firsthand.

But instead of admitting this, Charismatics want to take it and build an entire movement on a misrepresented doctrine and make two classes of Christians, those who have received the HS baptism and those who have not. This is a blatantly false doctrine!

What I have said is fact. You willingly ignore the truth to keep your false doctrine. This doctrine divides the body of Christ, makes two classes of Christians, and does great harm.

 

[awaken]

I don't know why you can't get it through your head that this is one time where the giving of the HS was delayed so that the apostles could give personal witness to the Jews to the fact that the Gospel was indeed for non-Jews. This was the first instance of non-Jews receiving the Gospel. Have you forgotten how despised the Samaritans were by the Jews? Do you not remember the parable of Jesus about this? God delayed giving the HS to these Samaritans so that the apostles could confirm firsthand by eyewitness account that the Gospel was for the Samaritans, as well. Do you think that if the Jews had heard that the Samaritans had received the Gospel that they would have believed it without the eyewitness testimony of the apostles? No! That's why the giving of the HS to the Samaritans was delayed until the apostles could witness it firsthand.

This is only what you believe so it will fit your theories! First off this is not the FIRST time a non-jew received salvation! Why would the apostles need an eyewitness to them receiving the Holy Spirit? Peter was told in a vision it was going to happen. So now you are saying that they did not believe what God had already told them and proved with Cornelius household? It says nothing in the Bible that the apostles had to witness everyone receiving the HOly Spirit.

But instead of admitting this, Charismatics want to take it and build an entire movement on a misrepresented doctrine and make two classes of Christians, those who have received the HS baptism and those who have not. This is a blatantly false doctrine!

There is an indwelling work of the HOly Spirit/salvation. There is an upon work of the HOly Spirit/empowering. Can they happen at the same time? Yes! Cornelius is proof of that!

I believe we have all these examples in the Bible because we are to see how if can happen different to different people!

Jesus Christ did not have to receive the HOly Spirit to be born again. So why was he baptized with the Spirit upon him? He was annointed with the HOly Spirit and with power!

 

[Yeshua1]

Only Jesus can do that..not water!
The only baptism mentioned that JESUS alone does is the Baptism in the Holy Spirit!
Man can baptize us in water!

Jesus was baptized in water and in the Holy Spirit! So which one do you think saved him? Your logic does not add up! Neither saves you!
Jesus was God he did not have to be born again! But he was annointed and empowered!
Faith in the complete work of Jesus Christ is what saves..nothing added!

Jesus was water baptized to 'fulfill all rightousness", but he did NOT have a "baptism in the Holy ghost", as He full of the Holy spirit, as he was and is God!

Again the bible commands us to be filled withby the HS NEVER to get baptized in him!

Do you have a verse saying we need to be?

 

[awaken]

Jesus was water baptized to 'fulfill all rightousness", but he did NOT have a "baptism in the Holy ghost", as He full of the Holy spirit, as he was and is God!

Again the bible commands us to be filled withby the HS NEVER to get baptized in him!

Do you have a verse saying we need to be?

What does baptize with the Holy Spirit mean to you?

Jesus promised it in Acts 1:4-5


All four gospels agree: "he saw the Spirit of God descending...and alighting upon Him" (Matt. 3:16; John 1:32; Mark 3:13 and Luke 3:11)
Jesus received an equipping and anointing with power. If Jesus received this..who are we to say that we do not need this in our own lives???

In Acts 10:37-38, Peter made reference to Jesus's anointing by the Holy Spirit in His semon to the Gentile Cornelius household.

 

[Thomas Helwys]

This is only what you believe so it will fit your theories! First off this is not the FIRST time a non-jew received salvation! Why would the apostles need an eyewitness to them receiving the Holy Spirit? Peter was told in a vision it was going to happen. So now you are saying that they did not believe what God had already told them and proved with Cornelius household? It says nothing in the Bible that the apostles had to witness everyone receiving the HOly Spirit.


There is an indwelling work of the HOly Spirit/salvation. There is an upon work of the HOly Spirit/empowering. Can they happen at the same time? Yes! Cornelius is proof of that!

I believe we have all these examples in the Bible because we are to see how if can happen different to different people!

Jesus Christ did not have to receive the HOly Spirit to be born again. So why was he baptized with the Spirit upon him? He was annointed with the HOly Spirit and with power!

See the part I bolded which shows just how foolish you are. That is NOT what I said, and those are not the facts, and you know it. The Jews would not have believed the Gospel was for the Samaritans if the apostles had not been there personally to confirm it; that's why the HS was not given until then.

I don't post theories unless I identify them as such.

 

[awaken]

See the part I bolded which shows just how foolish you are. That is NOT what I said, and those are not the facts, and you know it. The Jews would not have believed the Gospel was for the Samaritans if the apostles had not been there personally to confirm it; that's why the HS was not given until then.

I don't post theories unless I identify them as such.

Yes! It is theory! Now you are saying that they would not trust Phillip.
You have said over and over that the apostles need to witness that others had received the Holy Spirit. Scriptures do not teach that! If it was the case for that one... why wouldn't it be for all that believed and were baptized?

I can also go to Acts 19 and show that Paul had expected the disciples at Ephesus to have received the Holy Spirit. The question was "Have you received the Holy Ghost SINCE ye believed?" He was not just asking if they received when they believed but SINCE they believed!

Another example:
If I ask my son.."Have you cleaned your room since you got home from school?" I am asking him if he cleaned his room AFTER he got home from school.

 

[Thomas Helwys]

Yes! It is theory! Now you are saying that they would not trust Phillip.

That is a lie.


You have said over and over that the apostles need to witness that others had received the Holy Spirit. Scriptures do not teach that! If it was the case for that one... why wouldn't it be for all that believed and were baptized?


That is another lie.


I can also go to Acts 19 and show that Paul had expected the disciples at Ephesus to have received the Holy Spirit. The question was "Have you received the Holy Ghost SINCE ye believed?" He was not just asking if they received when they believed but SINCE they believed!


I have explained to you numerous times that these were not Christian disciples!! They were merely John's disciples and had not yet received Jesus, as the passage clearly shows, and which you keep ignoring or are too dense or dishonest to admit.


Another example:
If I ask my son.."Have you cleaned your room since you got home from school?" I am asking him if he cleaned his room AFTER he got home from school.

See my first responses above, in red.

I have figured something out about you: You are either too dumb or dishonest to have a conversation with, as what you have said above shows. Now I may get an infraction for that, but that is what I believe, and your posts bear it out.

 

[awaken]

See my first responses above, in red.

I have figured something out about you: You are either too dumb or dishonest to have a conversation with, as what you have said above shows. Now I may get an infraction for that, but that is what I believe, and your posts bear it out.

I am not dishonest or dumb as you claim! I stated what I was understanding from your post!

I have come to realize that when one's evidence to debate is called out, there's always sarcasm and snide remarks. Judgment follows! Ignoring scripture when it contradicts your view. MOst throw out parts of the Bible that does not fit there theories.

Just because someone does not agree with your interpretation does not mean they are dumb or dishonest!

 

[TCassidy]

You are either too dumb or dishonest to have a conversation with, as what you have said above shows. Now I may get an infraction for that, but that is what I believe, and your posts bear it out.

I agree. In this thread I posted the scripture that makes it clear there is ONE BAPTISM. He insists there are more than one. So, it is obvious he insists the bible is wrong.

In the other thread I posted the scripture that says, at the time Paul wrote 1 Corinthians, the sign gifts had already passed away (now abides faith, hope, love, these three). He ignored the bible and insisted he is right. So, it is obvious he insists the bible is wrong.

It is a waste of time witnessing to him. He has no desire for the Truth of God's word. He knows what he knows and does not want to be confused by the FACTS!

 

[awaken]

After many post and points brought up...I am at the conclusion that...

Paul’s statement in 1 Corinthians 12:13 – “For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body – Jews or Greeks, slaves or free – and all were made to drink of one Spirit.”

I believe that Paul is here referring to the fulfillment of that very famous prophecy of John the Baptist concerning Jesus. You will recall Mark 1:7-8 (Matt. 3:11) where John declared:

“After me comes he who is mightier than I, the strap of whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and untie. I have baptized you with water, but he will baptize you with the Holy Spirit.”

The Holy Spirit doesn’t baptize anyone. It is Jesus who baptizes “in” or “with” the Holy Spirit. The analogy with water baptism is clear. Just as John immersed people in water and saturated them with water, so Jesus will immerse people in and saturate them with the Holy Spirit.

Paul uses the same language as John the Baptist: we are baptized “in” one Spirit, not “by” the Spirit. Jesus is the baptizer. The Spirit is the element, so to speak, in which we are baptized.

And how many of the Corinthians does Paul have in view? How many Christians are baptized in the Holy Spirit? Paul says clearly in v. 13 – “For in one Spirit we were ALL baptized into one body . . . and ALL were made to drink of one Spirit.”

Thus what Paul is saying is that all Christians are immersed or baptized BY Jesus IN the Spirit, the result of which is we are made to be one spiritual body, regardless of whether we are Jewish or Gentile or slave or free.

Here Paul employs two different metaphors that describe the same reality. Whatever occurs to those in v. 13a occurs to those in v. 13b. In other words, the same “we all” who were baptized in one Spirit into one body were also made to drink of the same Spirit. The activity in the two phrases is co-extensive.

Paul is probably using two vivid metaphors to describe our experience of the Holy Spirit at the time of conversion, at the time when we became members of the body of Christ, the Church:

Baptism, or immersion in the Holy Spirit, and

Drinking to the fill of the Holy Spirit . . .

the purpose or goal of which is to unite us all in one body.

I have stated several times that it is a separate experience...mostly because of my own experience. My search will lead me to either believe we get it all at once as Paul seems to describe or it is a separate experience...I do not have it figured out in my own life yet! I just know I had two separate experiences! Maybe because of the unbelief I was taught??? I just know that the power of the Holy Spirit is available for all believers!

 

[DHK]

After many post and points brought up...I am at the conclusion that...

Paul’s statement in 1 Corinthians 12:13 – “For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body – Jews or Greeks, slaves or free – and all were made to drink of one Spirit.”

I believe that Paul is here referring to the fulfillment of that very famous prophecy of John the Baptist concerning Jesus. You will recall Mark 1:7-8 (Matt. 3:11) where John declared:

“After me comes he who is mightier than I, the strap of whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and untie. I have baptized you with water, but he will baptize you with the Holy Spirit.”

He isn't. Study the context and the Greek. The context of the chapter is the local church. The Corinthian church (ekklesia) is an assembly consisting of many members, as is every local church/assembly. Every member has its own unique gift or God-given ability that God has gifted him with. In the first century some of these were the gifts of the Spirit, but not all of them. He addresses this problem because it was a carnal church, but it was a problem specific to the Corinthian church, not to any of the other churches. The principle to learn is that each local church has many members. These members need to use their gifts and work in harmony one with another.
Here is 1Cor.12:13

1 Corinthians 12:13 και γαρ εν ενι πνευματι ημεις παντες εις εν σωμα εβαπτισθημεν ειτε ιουδαιοι ειτε ελληνες ειτε δουλοι ειτε ελευθεροι και παντες εις εν πνευμα εποτισθημεν
--The spirit is not the Holy Spirit, but rather a spirit of unity among the believers. The body is the body of believers of the Corinthian church. The baptism is water baptism.
The Greek word ev is used, meaning "in one spirit" suggesting that we are not baptized by the Spirit, but rather in one spirit, referring to the spirit of the church.

1 Corinthians 12:27 Now ye are the body of Christ, and members in particular.
1 Corinthians 12:27 υμεις δε εστε σωμα χριστου και μελη εκ μερους
--The same is true here. The definite article was inserted by the translators. It is more accurately translated "a body of Christ," which the local church at Corinth is. Each of the members made up one body. This is what was being described here.

1 Corinthians 12:26 And whether one member suffer, all the members suffer with it; or one member be honoured, all the members rejoice with it.
--This can only apply to one local church, whatever that local church may be. We know, who in our church are sick, who has cancer, who has injured themself at work and therefore is temporarily out of work, who is about to give birth, who may soon be married, etc. We suffer with each other; we rejoice with each other. These verses can only apply to the local church into which each member has been physically baptized by water. Look through history. Virtually every segment of Christendom has used baptism as the gate to church membership.

The Holy Spirit doesn’t baptize anyone. It is Jesus who baptizes “in” or “with” the Holy Spirit. The analogy with water baptism is clear. Just as John immersed people in water and saturated them with water, so Jesus will immerse people in and saturate them with the Holy Spirit.

What Scriptural evidence can you give that makes sense in its given context. For example the baptism of Jesus doesn't make sense does it, for his baptism has nothing to do with ours.

Paul uses the same language as John the Baptist: we are baptized “in” one Spirit, not “by” the Spirit. Jesus is the baptizer. The Spirit is the element, so to speak, in which we are baptized.

Paul emphasizes water baptism.

And how many of the Corinthians does Paul have in view? How many Christians are baptized in the Holy Spirit? Paul says clearly in v. 13 – “For in one Spirit we were ALL baptized into one body . . . and ALL were made to drink of one Spirit.”

For in one spirit (of unity) we were all baptized into this one body or local church. That is the Biblical way of doing things. First salvation. Second baptism. Third church membership.

Thus what Paul is saying is that all Christians are immersed or baptized BY Jesus IN the Spirit, the result of which is we are made to be one spiritual body, regardless of whether we are Jewish or Gentile or slave or free.

But Paul did not say that. Only you said that. That is simply your interpretation of what you think Paul said.

Here Paul employs two different metaphors that describe the same reality. Whatever occurs to those in v. 13a occurs to those in v. 13b. In other words, the same “we all” who were baptized in one Spirit into one body were also made to drink of the same Spirit. The activity in the two phrases is co-extensive.

In reference to the second half of verse 13, I refer you to the Greek scholar A.T. Robertson:

And were all made to drink of one Spirit (kai pantes hen pneuma epotisthēmen). First aorist passive indicative of potizō, old verb, to give to drink. The accusative hen pneuma is retained in the passive as often with verbs that in the active take two accusatives. The reference is to a definite act in the past, probably to the inward experience of the Holy Spirit symbolized by the act of baptism.

Paul is probably using two vivid metaphors to describe our experience of the Holy Spirit at the time of conversion, at the time when we became members of the body of Christ, the Church:

He is describing believers being in unity with each other in the local church. This was a church in which division and schism was a problem. Paul was teaching unity. There needs to be unity in the local church.
This passage does not talk of a universal church. Such an animal does not exist.

Baptism, or immersion in the Holy Spirit, and

Drinking to the fill of the Holy Spirit . . .

the purpose or goal of which is to unite us all in one body.

The only baptism there is is that of water.
Drinking of the Holy Spirit is no doubt a reference back to when one was indwelt with the Spirit, and from that time onward we drink of the Spirit from His Word.
The "one body" is the "body of the Corinthian Church," the church that Paul was writing about, the one with unity problems.

I have stated several times that it is a separate experience...mostly because of my own experience. My search will lead me to either believe we get it all at once as Paul seems to describe or it is a separate experience...I do not have it figured out in my own life yet! I just know I had two separate experiences! Maybe because of the unbelief I was taught??? I just know that the power of the Holy Spirit is available for all believers!

You last statement is true. But not because there is a subsequent baptism or subsequent blessing of any kind.
Here is an important command of Scripture:

Ephesians 5:18 And be not drunk with wine, wherein is excess; but be filled with the Spirit;
Being filled with the Holy Spirit will bring the power of the Holy Spirit.
The verse is a command to be continually filled with the Holy Spirit, as one should strive to do so on a day by day basis. It involves submitting to Him and yielding to Him; saying no to self, denying yourself of your desires and giving yourself to the desires of Christ. In this manner Paul called himself "the slave of Christ."

When Peter was filled with the Spirit:
He spoke with tongues, he preached with power, he spoke before the Sanhedrin, he preached fearlessly. It is the filling of the Holy Spirit that brings the power of the Holy Spirit. However, the power of the Holy Spirit is primarily for the purpose of preaching.

 

[Thomas Helwys]

I agree. In this thread I posted the scripture that makes it clear there is ONE BAPTISM. He insists there are more than one. So, it is obvious he insists the bible is wrong.

In the other thread I posted the scripture that says, at the time Paul wrote 1 Corinthians, the sign gifts had already passed away (now abides faith, hope, love, these three). He ignored the bible and insisted he is right. So, it is obvious he insists the bible is wrong.

It is a waste of time witnessing to him. He has no desire for the Truth of God's word. He knows what he knows and does not want to be confused by the FACTS!

Well, other than that "he" is a "she", I agree with you.

 

[Thomas Helwys]

I am not dishonest or dumb as you claim! I stated what I was understanding from your post!

I have come to realize that when one's evidence to debate is called out, there's always sarcasm and snide remarks. Judgment follows! Ignoring scripture when it contradicts your view. MOst throw out parts of the Bible that does not fit there theories.

Just because someone does not agree with your interpretation does not mean they are dumb or dishonest!

You are dishonest because you post that I said something I did not say. You take what I said and modify and twist it into something else to deflect from your untenable position.

YOU are the one who ignores scripture and context; you have to because it totally refutes you. You have absolutely no basis for your claims; it is YOU who are theorizing. You have to do that to provide some kind of excuse to defend your unscriptural doctrine and practice.

Here is an affirmation of the interpretation of the verses and instances in question regarding the instances of the delayed baptism of the HS in scripture, and tongues being given as a witness. This is taken from the influential and scholarly book, The Religious Bodies of America, by F.E. Mayer. About speaking in tongues, the author says,"Relatively little space is given in the New Testament to speaking in tongues. In the light of this fact it seems rather strange that such extreme Biblicists as the Pentecostals can consider this phenomenon indispensable for the church and the Spirit's work. It is noteworthy that when St. Paul describes the Spirit's work, e.g., Gal: 5:22,23, he makes no reference whatsoever to speaking in tongues. In fact, this phenomenon was not present in every New Testament church. It is mentioned only three times in the Book of Acts, and only in 1 Corinthians 14 does St. Paul discuss it. The three references to this phenomenon in Acts indicate clearly that it was given purely as a witness to the Gospel proclamation. On Pentecost Day it was one of the signs to convince Israel that the crucified Jesus is Savior and Lord. In the home of Cornelius the phenomenon helped to show Peter that the Gospel is for the Gentiles as well as for the Jews. At Ephesus (Acts 19: 1-7) this charismatic gift served to persuade the disciples of John the Baptist that the Christian era had replaced the Johannine era."

One who simply refuses to accept the scriptural truth when confronted with irrefutable evidence is foolish indeed. The teaching that the baptism of the HS is separate from conversion and that it is evidenced by tongues is false doctrine. The three times it was mentioned in Acts were exceptional, specific, unrepeatable events.

 

[awaken]

You are dishonest because you post that I said something I did not say. You take what I said and modify and twist it into something else to deflect from your untenable position.

YOU are the one who ignores scripture and context; you have to because it totally refutes you. You have absolutely no basis for your claims; it is YOU who are theorizing. You have to do that to provide some kind of excuse to defend your unscriptural doctrine and practice.

Here is an affirmation of the interpretation of the verses and instances in question regarding the instances of the delayed baptism of the HS in scripture, and tongues being given as a witness. This is taken from the influential and scholarly book, The Religious Bodies of America, by F.E. Mayer. About speaking in tongues, the author says,"Relatively little space is given in the New Testament to speaking in tongues. In the light of this fact it seems rather strange that such extreme Biblicists as the Pentecostals can consider this phenomenon indispensable for the church and the Spirit's work. It is noteworthy that when St. Paul describes the Spirit's work, e.g., Gal: 5:22,23, he makes no reference whatsoever to speaking in tongues. In fact, this phenomenon was not present in every New Testament church. It is mentioned only three times in the Book of Acts, and only in 1 Corinthians 14 does St. Paul discuss it. The three references to this phenomenon in Acts indicate clearly that it was given purely as a witness to the Gospel proclamation. On Pentecost Day it was one of the signs to convince Israel that the crucified Jesus is Savior and Lord. In the home of Cornelius the phenomenon helped to show Peter that the Gospel is for the Gentiles as well as for the Jews. At Ephesus (Acts 19: 1-7) this charismatic gift served to persuade the disciples of John the Baptist that the Christian era had replaced the Johannine era."

One who simply refuses to accept the scriptural truth when confronted with irrefutable evidence is foolish indeed. The teaching that the baptism of the HS is separate from conversion and that it is evidenced by tongues is false doctrine. The three times it was mentioned in Acts were exceptional, specific, unrepeatable events.

You are the one that ignores scriptures to hold on to your doctrines of men!
1 Cor. is clear that tongues is speaking to God/ blessing with spirit/ praying in the spirit!

If what you post is true..that tongue is just to witness the gospel. Tongues is still a manifestation of the Holy Spirit! But my Bible says there is more to tongues than what you posted. See...you like others only pick out certain scriptures to believe and ignore the rest of the facts!

I believe that tongues is ONE manifestation of the Holy Spirit. Tongue was praising/magnifying God in most examples which does not contradict 1 Cor. 12-14. I have always agreed to it being a sign to the Jew...but not the only reason! 1 Cor. is plain on what tongues is and how it is to be used and NOT BE USED in the assembly!

 

[awaken]

I agree. In this thread I posted the scripture that makes it clear there is ONE BAPTISM. He insists there are more than one. So, it is obvious he insists the bible is wrong.

In the other thread I posted the scripture that says, at the time Paul wrote 1 Corinthians, the sign gifts had already passed away (now abides faith, hope, love, these three). He ignored the bible and insisted he is right. So, it is obvious he insists the bible is wrong.

It is a waste of time witnessing to him. He has no desire for the Truth of God's word. He knows what he knows and does not want to be confused by the FACTS!

You cling to the one baptism being water, is that correct?
You say the manifestations of the HOly Spirit has ceased, but my Bible says they will not cease until We are face to face and I will know as I AM KNOWN.

Faith, hope and love do remain...but you just threw away the rest where Paul does not! He said follow after charity (love) but desire spiritual gifts!
If you believe this then we do not need discernment, faith, words of wisdom, words of knowledge etc.

What most love to do (and I know because I was one of them) is cling to what is comfortable to them..explain away what they are not experiencing or do not understand.

Stay in your unbelief concerning the manifestation of the Holy Spirit! I have shared what the HOly Spirit has shown me...I can not make anyone receive it!

But the one baptism is not WATER!

 

[awaken]

He isn't. Study the context and the Greek. The context of the chapter is the local church. The Corinthian church (ekklesia) is an assembly consisting of many members, as is every local church/assembly. Every member has its own unique gift or God-given ability that God has gifted him with. In the first century some of these were the gifts of the Spirit, but not all of them. He addresses this problem because it was a carnal church, but it was a problem specific to the Corinthian church, not to any of the other churches. The principle to learn is that each local church has many members. These members need to use their gifts and work in harmony one with another.
Here is 1Cor.12:13

1 Corinthians 12:13 και γαρ εν ενι πνευματι ημεις παντες εις εν σωμα εβαπτισθημεν ειτε ιουδαιοι ειτε ελληνες ειτε δουλοι ειτε ελευθεροι και παντες εις εν πνευμα εποτισθημεν
--The spirit is not the Holy Spirit, but rather a spirit of unity among the believers. The body is the body of believers of the Corinthian church. The baptism is water baptism.
The Greek word ev is used, meaning "in one spirit" suggesting that we are not baptized by the Spirit, but rather in one spirit, referring to the spirit of the church.

1 Corinthians 12:27 Now ye are the body of Christ, and members in particular.
1 Corinthians 12:27 υμεις δε εστε σωμα χριστου και μελη εκ μερους
--The same is true here. The definite article was inserted by the translators. It is more accurately translated "a body of Christ," which the local church at Corinth is. Each of the members made up one body. This is what was being described here.

1 Corinthians 12:26 And whether one member suffer, all the members suffer with it; or one member be honoured, all the members rejoice with it.
--This can only apply to one local church, whatever that local church may be. We know, who in our church are sick, who has cancer, who has injured themself at work and therefore is temporarily out of work, who is about to give birth, who may soon be married, etc. We suffer with each other; we rejoice with each other. These verses can only apply to the local church into which each member has been physically baptized by water. Look through history. Virtually every segment of Christendom has used baptism as the gate to church membership.

What Scriptural evidence can you give that makes sense in its given context. For example the baptism of Jesus doesn't make sense does it, for his baptism has nothing to do with ours.

Paul emphasizes water baptism.

For in one spirit (of unity) we were all baptized into this one body or local church. That is the Biblical way of doing things. First salvation. Second baptism. Third church membership.

But Paul did not say that. Only you said that. That is simply your interpretation of what you think Paul said.

In reference to the second half of verse 13, I refer you to the Greek scholar A.T. Robertson:


He is describing believers being in unity with each other in the local church. This was a church in which division and schism was a problem. Paul was teaching unity. There needs to be unity in the local church.
This passage does not talk of a universal church. Such an animal does not exist.

The only baptism there is is that of water.
Drinking of the Holy Spirit is no doubt a reference back to when one was indwelt with the Spirit, and from that time onward we drink of the Spirit from His Word.
The "one body" is the "body of the Corinthian Church," the church that Paul was writing about, the one with unity problems.

You last statement is true. But not because there is a subsequent baptism or subsequent blessing of any kind.
Here is an important command of Scripture:

Ephesians 5:18 And be not drunk with wine, wherein is excess; but be filled with the Spirit;
Being filled with the Holy Spirit will bring the power of the Holy Spirit.
The verse is a command to be continually filled with the Holy Spirit, as one should strive to do so on a day by day basis. It involves submitting to Him and yielding to Him; saying no to self, denying yourself of your desires and giving yourself to the desires of Christ. In this manner Paul called himself "the slave of Christ."

When Peter was filled with the Spirit:
He spoke with tongues, he preached with power, he spoke before the Sanhedrin, he preached fearlessly. It is the filling of the Holy Spirit that brings the power of the Holy Spirit. However, the power of the Holy Spirit is primarily for the purpose of preaching.

You guys contradict so many scriptures to believe the way you do!

 

[Yeshua1]

You cling to the one baptism being water, is that correct?
You say the manifestations of the HOly Spirit has ceased, but my Bible says they will not cease until We are face to face and I will know as I AM KNOWN.

Faith, hope and love do remain...but you just threw away the rest where Paul does not! He said follow after charity (love) but desire spiritual gifts!
If you believe this then we do not need discernment, faith, words of wisdom, words of knowledge etc.

What most love to do (and I know because I was one of them) is cling to what is comfortable to them..explain away what they are not experiencing or do not understand.

Stay in your unbelief concerning the manifestation of the Holy Spirit! I have shared what the HOly Spirit has shown me...I can not make anyone receive it!

But the one baptism is not WATER!

can you point out ONE verse that command NT believers to seek the baptism in the Holy Spirit, as neing a seperate working of His after salvation ?

 

[evangelist-7]

Charismatics want to take it and build an entire movement on a misrepresented doctrine
and make two classes of Christians, those who have received the HS baptism and those who have not.
This is a blatantly false doctrine!

Some boys were specially-called in the OT ... the prophets had the God's Spirit come UPON them.

But, dis NEVER EVER EVER happened with the normal-every-day Jews.

2 groups in the OT ... (1) Spirit-UPON boys anointed for special tasks ... and ... (2) the non-anointed.
2 groups in the NT ... (1) Spirit-UPON boys anointed for special tasks ... and ... (2) the non-anointed.

Hi, DHK, what's happenin', bro?
.

 

[evangelist-7]

sorry ..................