I haue beene shewed and herde many thynges this daye, but "this one takes the cake."
Doeth myne eares deceiue me? Doest thou daily speaketh (and spelleth) as dyddestt a citesyn of "England" 400-500 yeares whereupon preuentest this tyme, in thine dayly doings and walke? Or, peraduenture yee perceiued (or demed) these folisshe questions as too 'laden', 'simple' or 'silly'?
Of course you don't speak or write in this manner, although FTR, every word in my response, prior to this sentence (excepting the words in quotations marks) is from either Tyndale's NT, Coverdale's, Bishop's, Geneva or the KJV 1611 spelling, all of which were done in the 16th and early 17th centuries, which makes my usage of such entirely "Modern English." (Language Cop says the syntax and grammar that I have used here, are also correct, as well!)
While I might find this an enjoyable intellectual exercise, what would be the point, as to the question asked by
steaver in the thread? I am fully aware of some of the reasons one might prefer another version, over that of the KJV. The dated language would be one of the best reasons I can think of for
not using the KJV, but that is not to say that 'the KJV translators' often chose any wrong word, in this,
per se, at that time.
However, I do believe they chose some few, incorrectly, the most obvious being "Easter", following Tyndale and Rogers in place of "Passover," in Acts 12:4. The Geneva had this one right for 25 years, and Wycliffe had it right with "Pask" for two centuries prior to this, for the reference is not to any Druid or other pagan feast day, at all.
Your repect or lack of the same for me, will obviously remain your decision.
I do assure you, I have never laid
any claim to being an intellectual.
And I am very seldom accused of
being one, either.
:laugh: :laugh:
Ed