Heavenly Pilgrim
New Member
KJV Joh 8:34 Jesus answered them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whosoever committeth sin is the servant of sin.
35 And the servant abideth not in the house for ever: but the Son abideth ever.
36 If the Son therefore shall make you free, ye shall be free indeed.
NIV: 34Jesus replied, "I tell you the truth, everyone who sins is a slave to sin. 35Now a slave has no permanent place in the family, but a son belongs to it forever. 36So if the Son sets you free, you will be free indeed.
HP: Now here is an interesting passage that is changed in a significant way from it's meaning from the KJV based upon the Majority text.
In the KJV, note that the reference in verse 35 was to a specific Man, i.e., the Man Christ Jesus. It is denoted by the direct object, ‘the Son.’ In the NIV the direct object ‘the Son’ is changed to an indirect object ‘a son.’ Note the capitalization change from being capitalized, clearly denoting the ‘Son of God, Jesus Christ,’ to simply be ‘a son,’ with the failure to capitalize ‘son’ indicating it is referencing any man, not simply Christ.
One would be hard pressed trying to prove that such changes have not been unduly influenced by the direct implications and influence of certain doctrinal beliefs.
By the way as a side note, I thought we have been told that the believer remains a sinner, which this passage tells us that if one does, he is a servant of sin and as such will NOT remain in the house forever as a family member, does it not?