Featured Was Judas Born-Again and Then Lost?

George Antonios · Nov 24, 2021

SavedByGrace said: ↑

“Then Jesus said to His disciples, “Assuredly, I say to you that it is hard for a rich man to enter the kingdom of heaven. And again I say to you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the kingdom of God. When His disciples heard it, they were greatly astonished, saying, “Who then can be saved?” But Jesus looked at them and said to them, “With men this is impossible, but with God all things are possible.” Then Peter answered and said to Him, “See, we have left all and followed You. Therefore what shall we have?” So Jesus said to them, “Assuredly I say to you, that in the regeneration, when the Son of Man sits on the throne of His glory, you who have followed Me will also sit on twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. And everyone who has left houses or brothers or sisters or father or mother or wife or children or lands, for My name’s sake, shall receive a hundredfold, and inherit eternal life. But many who are first will be last, and the last first” (Matthew 19:23-30)

Jesus is in this passage, speaking to the 12 Disciples. There can be no doubt, that the words that Jesus speaks in verse 28, are addressed to the 12, as Jesus says that THEY will sit on TWELVE thrones, judging the TWELVE Tribes of Israel. There can be no doubt from Jesus’ Words, that Judas is included in this. This is a future event, which is in the Afterlife in heaven, which is only for those who "born-again".

Jesus is here speaking of the next life, as He clearly says, “in the Regeneration”, which actually is the same Greek word, “παλιγγενεσία”, used in Titus 3:5, which literally means, “New Birth”, a reference to the afterlife for believers.

Can Jesus have said this to the TWELVE, including Judas, and not mean that, had Judas remained faithful, that he would have been in heaven?

1Pe 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
We already have seen from Luke’s account of the Lord’s Supper, which is in more detail, that Jesus did give the Bread and Wine to Judas, and told him as part of the 12, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you” (22:20).

The timing is very important. Had Jesus not wanted to include Judas in what He said, then He could have said what He does in Matthew 19, and Luke 22, after Judas had left the room to betray Him. However, as the facts stand, Jesus made sure that Judas was present for both events.

In Luke’s Gospel, Jesus again says something very similar to this:

“But you are those who have continued with me in my trials. I confer on you a kingdom, even as my Father conferred on me, that you may eat and drink at my table in my Kingdom. You will sit on thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.” (22:28-30)

This takes place when Jesus give the Lord’s Supper, when Judas was present, and also took part in this.

However, we do know from Acts 1:25, that Judas did not go to heaven after his death, “to take part in this ministry and apostleship from which Judas fell away, that he might go to his own place.”

In Matthew 10:1, we read, “And he called to him his twelve disciples and gave them authority over unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal every disease and every affliction”

Mark 3:14, “He appointed twelve, that they might be with him, and that he might send them out to preach”

Mark 9:35, 41, “He sat down, and called the twelve; and he said to them… For whoever will give you a cup of water to drink in my name, because you are Christ’s, most certainly I tell you, he will in no way lose his reward”

John 6:70, “Jesus answered them, “Did I not choose you, the twelve? And yet one of you is a devil (διάβολος, false accuser).”

These verses, as many others in the Gospels, clearly show that Judas, as one of the 12 Disciples, whom Jesus Christ had personally chosen, is said to also “belong to Christ”, being one of His, in a very personal way. Judas was given the same “them authority over unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal every disease and every affliction”. And to preach the Gospel Message as the other 11.

Judas remained as one of the 12 Disciples, till the time when he chose to betray Jesus Christ to the Jewish leaders.

There is an interesting passage by the Reformed theologian Dr Robert Dabney:

“Certainly the expiation made by Christ is so related to all, irrespective of election, that God can sincerely invite all to enjoy its benefits, that every soul in the world who desires salvation is warranted to appropriate it, and that even a Judas, had he come in earnest, would not have been cast out” (Systematic Theology, p.527)

Is the example of Judas, of someone who can be “born again”, and then lose their salvation? What does this teach us about “once saved, always saved”?
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No new birth was possible before the resurrection of Christ.

1Pe 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,

Joh 7:38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
Joh 7:39 (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

No one was ever "born again" before the resurrection of Christ. So neither Judas, nor yet the apostles, were born again in the gospels. They got born again in Acts 2 when the Spirit was given after the resurrection of our Lord.

(Christ's reproof of Nicodemus was that he wasn't even aware of the prophecies concerning the future-coming new birth)

George Antonios · Nov 25, 2021

SavedByGrace said: ↑

Jesus never said that Judas was "a devil", the English translations do. The Greek is "διάβολος", which basically means, "false accuser"
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By that logic, neither is the devil the devil.

SavedByGrace · Nov 25, 2021

George Antonios said: ↑

By that logic, neither is the devil the devil.
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Not so, when we read " ὁ διάβολος", with the use of the article, and the context, like the Testing of Jesus in Matthew 4, where the devil is clearly a personal being.

διάβολος, does mean:

"διάβολ-ος , ον , slanderous, backbiting, γραῦς Men. 878 , cf. Phld. Lib. p.24O. : Sup. -ώτατος Ar. Eq. 45 ; διάβολόν τι, aliquid invidiae, And. 2.24 ; τὸ δ. Plu. 2.61d . II Subst. , slanderer, Pi. Fr. 297 , Arist. Top. 126a31 , Ath. 11.508d ; enemy, LXX Es. 7.4 , LXX Es. 8.1 : hence, = Sâtân, ib. 1 Chr. 21.1; the Devil, Ev.Matt. 4.1, etc. III Adv. -λως injuriously, invidiously, Th. 6.15 ; χρῆσθαί τινι Procop. Arc. 2 ." Liddell & Scott

"διάβολος, διάβολον (διαβάλλω which see), prone to slander, slanderous, accusing falsely, (Aristophanes, Andocides (), Plutarch, others): 1 Timothy 3:11; 2 Timothy 3:3; Titus 2:3; as a substantive, ὁ διάβολος, a calumniator, false accuser, slanderer, (see κατηγορέω, at the end) (Xenophon, Ages. 11, 5; (Aristotle, others)): the Sept. Esther 7:4; Esther 8:1. In the Bible and in ecclesiastical writings ὁ διάβολος (also διάβολος without the article; cf. Winers Grammar, 124 (118); Buttmann, 89 (78)) is applied κατ' ἐξοχήν to the one called in Hebrew הַשָּׂטָן, ὁ σατανᾶς (which see), viz., Satan, the prince of demons, the author of evil, persecuting good men (Job 1; Zechariah 3:1ff, cf. Revelation 12:10), estranging mankind from God and enticing them to sin, and afflicting them with diseases by means of demons who take possession of their bodies at his bidding; the malignant enemy of God and the Messiah: Matthew 4:1, 5,(); ; Luke 4:2,( R L, ); ; John 13:2; Acts 10:38; Ephesians 4:27; Ephesians 6:11; 1 Timothy 3:6; 2 Timothy 2:26; Hebrews 2:14; James 4:7; 1 Peter 5:8; Jude 1:9; Revelation 2:10; Revelation 12:9, 12; Revelation 20:2, 10; (Wis. 2:24; (cf. Psalm 108:6 (); 1 Chronicles 21:1)). Men who resemble the devil in mind and will are said εἶναι ἐκ τοῦ διαβόλου to be of the devil, properly, to derive their origin from the devil, tropically, to depend upon the devil in thought and action, to be prompted and governed by him: John 8:44; 1 John 3:8; the same are called τέκνα τοῦ διαβόλου, children of the devil, 1 John 3:10; υἱοί τοῦ διαβόλου, sons of the devil, Acts 13:10, cf. Matthew 13:38; John 8:38; 1 John 3:10. The name διάβολος is figuratively applied to a man who, by opposing the cause of God, may be said to act the part of the devil or to side with him: John 6:70, cf. Matthew 16:23; Mark 8:33. (Cf. σαταν at the end." Thayer

Salty · Nov 25, 2021

Salty said: ↑

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