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Was Mary a surrogate or did she contribute her seed to Jesus??

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Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

Strong's Hebrew Dictionary
2233. zera`
Search for H2233 in KJVSL
erz zera` zeh'-rah
from 2232; seed; figuratively, fruit, plant, sowing-time, posterity:--X carnally, child, fruitful, seed(-time), sowing- time.

See Hebrew 2232

I believe the word posterity, or child is the only choice in interpretation. Christ was the seed, Christ was the child born to Mary.

Isaiah 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

It was not that Mary had a seed, for women do not carry the seed. Mary bore the child into the world.

Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy child and her child; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

I am reminded of the statement Jesus told the Pharisees, "Ye are of your father, the devil." The children of the serpent... the deceiver.

The seed was not carried within Mary prior to the Holy Spirit overshadowing her. The seed was of God, not man.
 

Matt Black

Well-Known Member
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Eliyahu said:
Jesus didn't belong to Adam's race.
So He wasn't human, then; that takes us back to the docetic heresy. Thanks but no thanks; that was sorted out in John 1:1-14 and I John 1:1-6 and the refutation of the concept has been adhered to by the Church ever since.

Case closed.

[ETA - and bravo again, DHK! Twice in 24 hours we agree - it can only mean one thing: is that the clatter of apocalyptic hooves I hear? Look up, everyone!]
 
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Zenas

Active Member
donnA said:
No, I think not. You misread my posts, and standingfirminchrist's.
No I did not misread your posts. Rather what you wrote was an unwitting admission of the immaculate conception. You said,
If Jesus carried Mary's blood, then He inherited the sin nature.
What i think you meant was that if Jesus has carried Mary's blood, this means He had to have a sinful nature because Mary had a sinful nature. However what you actually said means that if Jesus carried Mary's blood, Mary would have to be free from sin for Jesus to be free from sin. So if Mary was free from sin then it would be plausible that she could be His biological mother who contributed half of His DNA. Guess what? Those who believe in the immaculate conception believe that is why Mary was created free from original sin.
 

Eliyahu

Active Member
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Matt Black said:
So He wasn't human, then; that takes us back to the docetic heresy. Thanks but no thanks; that was sorted out in John 1:1-14 and I John 1:1-6 and the refutation of the concept has been adhered to by the Church ever since.

Case closed.

[ETA - and bravo again, DHK! Twice in 24 hours we agree - it can only mean one thing: is that the clatter of apocalyptic hooves I hear? Look up, everyone!]

The second Adam's race is Human as well.

The Bible clearly says Adam's race is the First Adam, and Jesus is the Second Adam, Read 1 Cor 15 !

How can you say Jesus is not Human if He belongs to the Second Adam?

Do you know the meaning of Adam?
 

Agnus_Dei

New Member
donnA said:
If Jesus carried Mary's blood, then He inherited the sin nature.
As Zenas stated, you just made the case for the RC Immaculate Conception. What you believe regarding us inheriting Adam’s sin is Augustinian theology and Augustine was a huge Western Church Father. Furthermore, the early Reformers took Augustine’s theology and developed it further.

Orthodoxy as did the Early Church believes and teaches that man inherits Adam’s death, not his sin, but we are in a fallen state and we choose to eventually sin. In Jesus’ case He identifies with His fallen creation by taking on human flesh from a woman and Jesus did die, but His human nature’s desire to sin submitted to His divine nature and thus He never sinned (Of course this is just skimming the surface, the theology is much deeper).

ICXC NIKA
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mrtumnus

New Member
Zenas said:
No I did not misread your posts. Rather what you wrote was an unwitting admission of the immaculate conception. You said, What i think you meant was that if Jesus has carried Mary's blood, this means He had to have a sinful nature because Mary had a sinful nature. However what you actually said means that if Jesus carried Mary's blood, Mary would have to be free from sin for Jesus to be free from sin. So if Mary was free from sin then it would be plausible that she could be His biological mother who contributed half of His DNA. Guess what? Those who believe in the immaculate conception believe that is why Mary was created free from original sin.
Not to be picky, but those who believe in the Immaculate Conception have no such understanding as to the reason Mary was created free from original sin. It has nothing to do with not passing a "sin nature" to Jesus, but is rather based on an understanding of the nature of God.

For those that have concluded that God could not have used Mary's DNA for this reason though, placing this sort of limitation on the power of God is quite puzzling to me.
 

Eliyahu

Active Member
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DHK said:
Fundamental truth is found in the Word of God.
The virgin birth is a foundational doctrine of Chrtistianity, just as important as the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ.
What does the Bible say about His birth:

Do I deny Virgin Birth? You must note that I presented the virgin Birth of Jesus by a Surrogate Mother !
It talks about the "seed of a woman" (Genesis 3:15)

Seed meant the Descendant so many times in the Bible. In most case it meant the Biological relationship, but in this case, this is the only and unique case, and the Fundamental Truth is that Word became Flesh.

It speaks of Christ being "made of a woman" (Gal.4:4)

Do you mean Woman made the Christ? Woman produced the Christ?
It means that Christ came out of Woman.

It was prophesied by Isa. that a virgin would conceive (Isa.7:14)
By surrogate relationship.
That reference has been referred to many times in the NT.
The angel reassured Mary that the Holy Spirit would come upon her and she would conceive through the Holy Spirit.

By surrogate motherhood, she conceived by the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit worked out that.
Furthermore Mary herself rejoices in God her Savior indicating that she herself is in need of Savior, futher admitting that she is a sinner; for only sinners need a Saviour.
So, you are admitting that the sinners egg became sinless person, right?

Christ is deity, and always was. He was born of a virgin, but his deity never changed. He was not born of Joseph through which the sin nature comes. He was born of the "seed" of Mary (Gen.3:15)--a miraculous event, conceived of the Holy Spirit. Thus He did not have a sin nature, though his human nature did come from Mary. It is the only way that he could inherit a human nature and come into this world as man, suffer as man, live as man, and finally die as man--and yet all this time remain as God.

If God can change the sinful woman's egg into sinless person, why didn't He do it for many people? Jesus came as the Second Adam thru His surrogate mother.

He laid aside his divine attributes when he went to the cross willingly of his own accord. He didn't have to. He didn't have to go to the cross. The Bible says that he could have called 12 legions of angels to defend himself but he didn't. He went to the cross anyway to die for you and me.

He was still God Himself while He was on this Earth though He didn't use that title with some exceptions when Thomas called Him my God. This is not a problem here. The most problem is how you can compromise with Word became Flesh when you claim Mary is the Biological Mother.
If the egg was used, was it stimulated by the Holy Spirit, or processed by or inspired by the Holy Spirit? Why doesn't He do it for all the eggs of the world?
What is your point here? Mary gave birth to Jesus. The Bible says he did. Read Luke 2.
As if I denied it !
There were three classes of people:
1. Those that were totally ignorant of the birth of Christ, and accused Christ of being born of fornication--not even recognizing Joseph as a father.
2. Those that unwittingly and naively accepted (but wrongly) that Joseph was his father.
Neither of these groups knew much of the birth of Christ, and wrongly assumed that he was from Galilee or from Nazareth.

John 1:45 Philip findeth Nathanael, and saith unto him, We have found him, of whom Moses in the law, and the prophets, did write, Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph.

John 7:41 Others said, This is the Christ. But some said, Shall Christ come out of Galilee?

Very few took the time to look into the facts: Where did Christ really come from.
1. He was born in Bethlehem of Ephratha.
2. He was born of Mary, conceived of the Holy Spirit.
3. Most important of all, He came from Heaven. (John 3:13)

Read about Joseph's genealogy:
[FONT=&quot]Jer. 22:24-30 shows that the curse of Jechoniah demanded the virgin birth.[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]a. The Lord's promise to David (2 Sam.7:16): Thine house and thy kingdom shall be established forever before thee: thy throne shall be established forever."[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]b. Several generations later Jehoiachin (Coniah) was cursed (Jer.22:30): Thus saith the Lord write this man childless, a man that shall not prosper in his days; for no man of his seed shall prosper, sitting on the throne of David, and ruling any more in Judah.[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]c. The physical link was cursed by God.[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]d. Joseph, the legal father of Jesus, was of this cursed line.[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]e. The solution: Mary was a descendant of Nathan, another son of David (Lk.3:31).[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]f. There was no other way that the Lord Jesus could have escaped the curse. The fulfillment of Isaiah's prophecy of the virgin birth is the only way the Lord could be true to His promise to David and His curse on Jehoiachin.[/FONT]

Jesus was born of a virgin. His flesh came from Mary. His sin nature did not. All throughout He remained God. He never relinquished his deity, though he set aside his divine attributes for a temporary period of time.

You have misunderstood the Bible quite a lot.
Jer 22:30 says he would be childless. How come Joseph become his descendant?
What the Bible said there is that Jesus would not come as a King of David's famil, which actually come true. The royal family was finished.
Jesus is the King of Kings.

Was the Nathan's family sinless?
Was Mary sinless?
If Jesus couldn't take anything from the body of Joseph because his family was sinful, the same applies to the Mary's family as well.

What Roman Catholic claims today is that The Blood of Jesus shed at the Cross came from the body of Mary, and even the body of Jesus was a part of Mary, which the Bible clearly rejects as it says " Word became Flesh"

What you have to convince is how you can compromise between

Word became Flesh
and
Mary is the Biological Mother, not the Surrogate Mother.

If anything of Mary was used to form the body of Jesus, it means Flesh ( of Mary) became Flesh ( of Jesus), and therefore you are denying the fundamental Truth.

If Any flesh, or Blood, or cell, or egg ( or Ovum) of Mary was used, Jesus would have been born as a sinner, which is untrue.
 
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Eliyahu

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DHK,

The fundamental problem with your statement is here:

DHK said:
He was not born of Joseph through which the sin nature comes. He was born of the "seed" of Mary (Gen.3:15)--a miraculous event, conceived of the Holy Spirit. Thus He did not have a sin nature, though his human nature did come from Mary. It is the only way that he could inherit a human nature and come into this world as man, suffer as man, live as man, and finally die as man--and yet all this time remain as God.


What you are saying is :
If the Humanity came from Joseph, then the Sin nature could be inherited to Jesus, but if the Human nature came from Mary, then Jesus could be sinless.


Wow !

You will be awarded the great prize for supporting Immaculate Conception !

Do you know that the sin entered thru Woman ?
Adam was not deceived but woman was deceived in the transgression ( 1 Tim 2:14) ?

Do you know that Man and Woman are equally guilty of all the sins of the world?

If Jesus couldn't inherit anything from Joseph, then the same applies to Mary, as well.
 

MichelleinPA

Member
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It seems very clear to me in Isaiah 7:14 that Mary did, in fact, contribute her egg.
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

And also in Luke 1:26-35
26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth, 27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary. 28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. 29 And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be. 30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God. 31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS. 32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: 33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end. 34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? 35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

And finally, Matthew 1:18-23
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. 19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily. 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. 22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, 23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
 

Eliyahu

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"Word became Flesh " stands firm forever.

Not the flesh became flesh in case of Jesus Christ.

If Flesh ( ovum) of Mary became Jesus, where was gone the Jesus who met Abrahm ( John 8:56-58)

Where was Jesus gone who wrestled with Jacob ( Gn 31) and whom Moses worked for ( Heb 11:26)?
 

Eliyahu

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Matthew 1:20

The important point is that the bible says:



Το γαρ εν αυτη γεννηθεν εκ Πνευματοσ εστιν Αγιου




"The One in her is born by the Holy Spirit" ( not the conceived)

How come the angel said that Jesus was alredy born by the Holy Spirit in Mary even before He was born out of Mary yet?
 

Eliyahu

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Today, HUman Cloning is possible, and Woman's egg alone can become a Human Embryo by the addition of skin cell without Sperm.

That's not the Tech used for Incarnation of Jesus.

Word became Flesh simply, without any Flesh.

This is the Fundamental Truth of Christianity.
 

MichelleinPA

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If Mary was nothing more than a oven for Jesus than how is He Son of Man?

Now, I understand why people try and downplay Mary, mostly it comes as a reaction to the RCC's idolatry of her, but to completely write her out of the story, that is a new one.
 
Jesus was the seed. Mary did not contribute seed, because she did not carry a seed in the first place.

As I showed in a previous post, 'seed' means posterity or child. Mary gave birth to Jesus He was the first of her offspring. His birth however was not the result of the union of a man and a woman, but rather miraculous.

"A body though hast prepared me"

God had a specific flesh body prepared for His Son. God did all the Work. By His very Word Mary became pregnant with His Son just as by His very Word this world was spoken into existence.

Was Mary a surrogate mother? Absolutely!
 

grace56

New Member
Mary wasn't Jesus's "surragate " mother she was and is his mother. How could she be anything else. Luke 1:31 "Behold you will concieve in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call him Jesus" I have given birth to two son's that were concieved in my womb and I am their mother, they have an earthly father, Jesus's has a heavenly father. Why should Mary not be considered Jesus's mother?
 
Mary was Jesus' mother. Surrogate. She did not provide the egg that needed to be fertilized. If she had provided the egg, Jesus would have inherited sinful flesh. He did not. He was God in the flesh. He did not become sin who knew no sin until He was nailed to that cross. That is when the sin of humanity was taken upon Himself.
 

Eliyahu

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grace56 said:
Mary wasn't Jesus's "surragate " mother she was and is his mother. How could she be anything else. Luke 1:31 "Behold you will concieve in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call him Jesus" I have given birth to two son's that were concieved in my womb and I am their mother, they have an earthly father, Jesus's has a heavenly father. Why should Mary not be considered Jesus's mother?

Jesus has been the only and unique One who was born by the Word.

When a surrogate mother conceive a baby she says the same, and will hear " Behold you will conceive in your womb and bear a son ( or a daughter), ..."

Everything is the same as the Biological Mother, but the difference is that Mary carried a baby born by the Holy Spirit, the complete Human Embryo.

If you disagree, please explain How Word of God became flesh ! ( John 1:14).

Otherwise, you are not believing the Bible in that verse.
 
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Eliyahu

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MichelleinPA said:
If Mary was nothing more than a oven for Jesus than how is He Son of Man?

Another Adam. Exactly the same as the First Adam, another Adam was come from Word of God

Now, I understand why people try and downplay Mary, mostly it comes as a reaction to the RCC's idolatry of her, but to completely write her out of the story, that is a new one.

No, more than that.
We have to return to the Bible.
If Jesus is the biological son of Mary, then He would have inherited the sinful nature of Mary. This is unavoidable. Catholics say that the Blood shed at the Cross was inherited from Mary and the same Blood was shed there for the human beings, which is nonsense.

Moreover, the Ovum is not designed for fertilization with Word, but with a Sperm.

No Sinful nature of Mary was transmitted to Jesus.

Sin entered the world, but Jesus came to this world in order to rescue the Adam's race. He came as the second Adam, exactly same as the first Adam, but proved that the Adam could have completely obeyed God, which the first Adam failed.

I thought the Bible Baptists are very much strict to the Bible.

Please check John 1:14 in your Bible. and read 1 Cor 15 and John 8:23

45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit. 46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual. 47 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven. 48 As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly. 49 And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.


Jn 8
23 And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world.
 
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Careful, Eliyahu,

They will accuse you of teaching the immaculate conception as they did me.

They truly do not understand that is was all God and nothing of man.
 

Agnus_Dei

New Member
standingfirminChrist said:
Mary was Jesus' mother. Surrogate. She did not provide the egg that needed to be fertilized. If she had provided the egg, Jesus would have inherited sinful flesh. He did not. He was God in the flesh. He did not become sin who knew no sin until He was nailed to that cross. That is when the sin of humanity was taken upon Himself.
Again your sounding like Augustine of the Catholic Church…Man didn’t inherit Adam’s sin from eating the forbidden fruit; man inherited the consequences of Adam’s sin, which is death…big difference. We are born with the tendency to sin through our freewill and it’s our human nature to sin, thus we will eventually rebel and sin…we are all sinners.

Jesus on the other hand, took flesh from Mary…Christ inherited not Adam’s sin, but Adam’s death…Christ died by the hands of the Romans. Christ died a physical death, just as we all will, tarry His coming. Christ’s two natures…human and divine was fully present the moment Mary agreed to bear the Son of God.

Jesus was tempted, but His human will, humanities tendency to sin, was subdued by His Divine will, thus Jesus was sinless.

ICXC NIKA
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