RB, the clause "by the Spirit" does not alter the fact the verse says we are chosen for salvation (by the Spirit) through faith in the truth.
Ah, that is because you are assuming the clause 'by the spirit' modifies the wrong clause - as demonstrated by your oversight of it. You see the verse does not say 'anything about being chosen through faith, is talks about being chosen through the setting aside to God (sanctification) of the Spirit and belief in the truth - look again at the text.
But we are bound to give thanks to God always for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God from the beginning chose you for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth (2Th 2:13 NKJ)
The text affirms that those Paul is writing to were:
1) Chosen from the beginning by God
2) Chosen to salvation
3) That comes through:
a) Sanctification by the spirit
b) Belief in the truth
I am sorry, but in my opinion, to suggest that the verse implies 'conditional election' is to rip it apart and put it back together according to ones own traditions. Consider that both (a) and (b) are works of God - neither originate in man. So, how can this verse be speaking of 'conditional election'?
By adding a verb,
What verb is 'added'?
I can see where a noun has been translated as a verb, but I cannot see the addition of a verb in the ESV
translation.
I would be interested in seeing your research in regards to the practice of translating nouns into verbs (and vice versa) in your preferred translation. The reality is that as one moves for the original language into the 'go to' language it is sometimes not simply legitimate, but actually desirable to change which part of speech a specific word belongs in.
it allows folks to say we were saved through faith in the truth, rather than chosen through faith in the truth.
No it doesn't - at least it doesn't if one reads every clause and properly parses the sentence!
This grammatical transformation is thus agenda driven, to hide the biblical truth of our conditional election.
Or maybe your rejection of it is agenda driven to maintain your belief in conditional election?
I am interested in knowing if anyone has ever asked the compilers of the ESV why they chose to translate this verse int he way that they did - it is easy it attribute motives to people who are not here to defend themselves, but is that fair?
To be honest, I don't really care what one thinks of a certain translation, that is neither here not there, what I do care about is the speed and willingness of many to attribute base motivations to their brothers and sisters in Christ based upon the fact that the person doesn't like what is being said.