I am relying on the Word of God
This, of course, is exactly what you are
not doing. I have asked you for one single place in the Bible where the Lord Jesus Christ is described as a 'means of salvation' and of course you have not done so because you cannot. You cannot even find a place in the Bible where propitiation is described as being a means of salvation. You are relying on Thayer and Vine, which you are obliged to do since you have no knowledge of Greek. But Thayer and Vine are not the word of God, are they? Therefore you are relying upon the word of men rather than the word of God QED.
Your theory seems to be along the lines of this syllogism:
1. The Lord Jesus Christ is the propitiation for our sins.
2. Propitiation is a means of salvation.
3. therefore the Lord Jesus is a means of salvation
However, by the same logic you have:
1. A sheep dog looks after sheep.
2. Looking after sheep is the job of a shepherd.
3. Therefore a sheep dog is a shepherd.
or
1. A fishing rod catches fish.
2. Someone who catches fish is a fisherman.
3. Therefore a fishing rod is a fisherman.
So:
1. The Father being propitiated in respect of our sins saves us
2. The Lord Jesus is the propitiation of our sins.
3. Therefore the Lord Jesus Christ is our Saviour.
The Lord Jesus is certainly the propitiation for our sins. How is He the propitiation for our sins? He has propitiated the Father towards us by atoning for our sins. By doing this He Himself has saved us, thus becoming our Saviour. Propitiation might be described as a 'means of salvation,'
though it is never so described in the Bible. But the Lord Jesus Christ is not a means of salvation; He is the Saviour, and so He is described over and over again in Scripture.
I see I overlooked the absurd claim that Christ being the propitiation, the means of salvation, makes Him not the Saviour. No Christ saves us from the righteous wrath of God the Father.
Once again, the sheepdog cannot be the shepherd; the hammer or the nail cannot be the carpenter.
Once more,
1 John 2:2 says Christ is the propitiation (or means of salvation) not only for our sins, but also for the sins of the whole world, all mankind
But of course, that's not what 1 John 2:2 says, is it?
Here it is in your favourite NASB.
'And He Himself is the propitiation [or 'satisfaction;' NASB margin]
for our sins; and not for ours only but for those of the whole world.' Apart from not giving 'means of salvation as a synonym for 'propitiation, the NASB also makes it clear that the words 'those of' do not appear in any Geek text. Jesus Christ is not described as the propitiation for the sins of the whole world in the sense of 'all mankind.' How could He be? It is plain that God is not propitiated towards the whole of mankind.
'He who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him' (John 3:36).