and take the word "foreknowledge" literally.
Hmm, ok. I mean foreknowledge is an English word, and usage determines meaning, and the Bible was not written in English, but ok, let's play your game.
Let's assume you first are talking about foreknew, not foreknowledge. If I am wrong please correct me. Second, foreknew, in the ESV, is only used twice. Romans 8:29 and Romans 11:2. The Greek Lemma is προγινώσκω.
According to BDAG, this lemma has two main definitions:
1. To know beforehand or in advance, have foreknowledge of.
2. To choose beforehand.
Now, even if you want to go with definition number one, which is what I assume you are wanting to do, let's look at that in the context of Romans 8:29 and see how that works out. Replacing the word (ESV) with the definition that would say this:
For those whom he had foreknowledge of and knew beforehand in advance, he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his son.
Now, that still doesn't give you foreknowledge of a choice they made. It is saying foreknowledge of a person, an individual. So to look at foreknowledge literally still does not help your cause at all in Romans 8:29.
Now in Romans 11:2, let's see how that would write out.
God has not rejected his people whom he knew beforehand, in advance.
That still does not help your cause.