Baptist Brother
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Lazarus was in Hell/Hades/grave, where everyone who dies goes. There he awaited resurrection.
Abraham's bosom is part of a parable.
Abraham's bosom is part of a parable.
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In saying "Abraham's bosom is part of a parable," do you mean there is no such place, just part of a story with a moral or something?
Lazarus was in Hell/Hades/grave,
where everyone who dies goes.
There he awaited resurrection.
Abraham's bosom is part of a parable.
Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; nor does corruption inherit incorruption. Behold, I tell you a mystery: We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed— in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality So when this corruptible has put on incorruption, and this mortal has put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written: “Death is swallowed up in victory.”[fn] “O Death, where is your sting?[fn]Prior to the Cross, yes.
Now only the lost go to Hades.
Scripture uses these terms in distinguishable difference, they are not all three identical in meaning and use.
Prior to the Cross, yes.
Now only the lost go to Hades.
Its not a parable. The Bosom of Abraham was a literal destination for the departed dead, primarily the Just.
Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; nor does corruption inherit incorruption. Behold, I tell you a mystery: We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed— in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality So when this corruptible has put on incorruption, and this mortal has put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written: “Death is swallowed up in victory.”[fn] “O Death, where is your sting?[fn]
O Hades, where is your victory?”[fn]
Is this passage inclusive of NT saints? From whence is the victory?
Darrell C said: ↑
Scripture uses these terms in distinguishable difference, they are not all three identical in meaning and use.
Hell and grave are both standard translations of Hades. It's not scripture that distinguishes them, it's the translator that does.
Darrell C said: ↑
Prior to the Cross, yes.
Now only the lost go to Hades.
I get the impression that everyone goes to Hades.
The gates of Hades will not prevail against the church, meaning Christians will be liberated from Hades in the resurrection.
For Judgement day, Hades gives up its dead and whoever is not found in the book of life is thrown into the lake of fire, meaning others are saved.
From what verses do you conclude only the lost go to Hades? The Lake of Fire, not Hades, is the destination of the lost.
Darrell C said: ↑
Its not a parable. The Bosom of Abraham was a literal destination for the departed dead, primarily the Just.
The only mention of the Bosom of Abraham is a parable, and parables by definition are non-literal.
And, <cough> the parable is not about where dead people go.
You are welcome to show me where "grave" means Hell or Hades, and we will discuss the verses.
Lazarus could not be "...in Hell/Hades/grave" at the same time, as the concepts differ greatly in Scripture, and...
...the story (not parable) of the Rich Man and Lazarus does not have him in three places.
Then you might be interested in this:
2 Corinthians 5:6-8
When Saints died prior to the Cross they went to Hades/Sheol, which in Jewish tradition was also called the Bosom of Abraham and Paradise.
When Saints die now they go to be with the Lord.
No man entered into the Lord's presence at death prior to the Cross, though we can take Paul's word for it that when we die now we do.
Two primary possibilities as to the meaning of "the Gates of Hades" I see as likely. First, it is simply a Jewish euphemism for death itself (as found in Jewish tradition (which we cannot entirely ignore seeing the Lord spoke of Hades rather than Sheol, meaning He allowed for popular understanding and phrases)).
Secondly, it could be viewed as an offensive position against death in the spiritual sense.
But what I see as not very realistic is an interpretation that it speaks of Christians being liberated from Hades. Perhaps you could supply Scripture that alludes to Christians going to Hades, and denies Paul's statement.
I take the view that it is quite likely that no-one that stands before that judgment are "saved." Salvation takes place, for both the Old and New Testament believer...while they are alive.
When Christ taught about gehenna, He was speaking about Hell, the Lake of Fire. And you are correct, Hell is the destination of the Lost, but they do not go there at death now, even as the Rich Man did not.
Many view the story of the rich man and Lazarus as a parable, I do not. Proper names are used, and we do not see that in the parables of Christ.
Secondly, parables are very much literal. For example, there is a literal Sower of Seed. There are literal Tares and Wheat.
The story given by Christ is a story of two men dying, and it must be maintained within the Age it is given, meaning, the two men died under (the Age of) Law. We see Abraham (a literal historical figure) tell the rich man who it is that the brothers have to keep them from ending up in torment:
"Oh grave [Hades] where is they victory" KJV
Shalt be brought down to the grave [twice]
The gates of the grave shall not prevail against it.
And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments.
Thou wilt not leave my soul in the grave neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.
Christ, that his soul was not left in the grave
The keys of the grave and of death.
Behold a pale horse: and his name that sat on him was Death, and the grave followed with him.
The grave delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works.
And death and the grave were cast into the lake of fire.
That's every appearance of Hades from KJV, where I've inserted "the grave" for Hades/Hell, except in the first example, where the KJV says grave. Only one example promotes the popular concept of Hell as a place of punishment for the wicked.
Only one example promotes the popular concept of Hell as a place of punishment for the wicked. And, that one example is a PARABLE.
We see Hell/hades/grave is only temporary and people are there before they are judged. Jesus went to Hades, not to preach, but because he was dead. Christians go to Hades, but the grave will not hold them.
The Lake of Fire is the punishment for the wicked, not Hades.
Are you trolling?
Not three places, three names for the same thing.
I'm not interesting in you spamming verses.
Hades or Sheol? Using your trolling logic, when saints died prior to the cross, they didn't go to two places.
Sheol it the Hebrew word for grave.
Bosom of Abraham doesn't exist, except in a parable.
Paradise is where we go after our resurrection.
The verses you spammed didn't mention Paradise, let alone when we go there (before or after our resurrection).
Do you think the our resurrection is immediate upon death?
Christ was slain before the foundation of the world.
Even assuming God is limited in time as we are, and that no man entered the Lord's presence before Christ's death, I don't see any relevance.
I can completely agree with it, and it makes no difference to anything I've said.
Jesus spoke in Greek, so he used the word Hades, rather than the Hebrew equivalent. All his Jewish audience would have understood Hades as the grave, as Sheol. Hades is the word used in the popular Greek translation of the Old Testament used by the Jews at the time. The numerous mentions of Hades in the Old Testament are without the concept of just the lost going there. On the contrary, the Old Testament treats it as the cold and silent grave, and the souls sleeping there and knowing nothing.
Death is mentioned numerous times in the Bible, where is "gates of Hades" ever used as an euphemism for it? What does "offensive position against death" mean? The meaning is clear, Christians will overcome death, i.e. leave Hades. Gates are the accesses of a cemetery, and proverbially keep the dead in their graves.
Sorry, I missed the statement of Paul saying Christians don't go to Hades. It wasn't in any of the verses you spammed.
At the top of this post are several verses that imply Christians go to Hades.
The Bible teaches that everyone will face judgement after resurrection.
Hades -- the grave -- gives up its dead and then they are judged.
Those who names are not found in the book of life are cast into the Lake of Fire.
God will rise everyone from the grave, then some will live, and the rest will be condemned.
You think the rich man went to a kind of painful purgatory, for some pointless, and unbiblical reason.
But, he didn't go anywhere because it was just a parable.
(The rich man represents the Jews who were replaced by gentiles as the people of God.
The rich man enjoyed God's blessings,
but didn't heed Moses and the prophets,
so Lazarus then became the subject of God's blessings,
and the rich man was turned over to torment.
The Valley of Hinnom, Gehenna, is not Hades. Lazarus went to Hades, not Gehenna.
A proper name makes a story not a parable? By what mechanism does a name make a story literal?
Let's take it literally, that Abraham's Bosom really is a real place,
The Bible says Jesus spoke in parables.
The Bible says Jesus spoke in parables. The story of the Rich Man and Lazarus is tucked into a string of parables
. If the story is literal rather than just illustrating a principle, what's the point of having in the Bible.
If it's literal, how is it there's no other mention in the entire Bible about dead saints going to Abraham's Bosom,
even though there is a great number of verses about where dead people go?
The only reason you think this parable is literal is make Abraham's Bosom a literal place (even though the phrase itself is plainly a figure of speech).
Does that mean you think the story of The Three Little Pigs is literal because there actually are pigs and wolves?
Are you sure the story of the seed sower is literal, given that no proper name is used?
In reality, the parable of sowing seeds is not literal, even if there's a such thing as people sewing seeds.