What you are proclaiming is contrary to sound doctrine. You claim sin is removed at Christ’s “reconciliation” when He died in the cross for all people.
However, all people, now sinless and reconciled to God are not yet saved until they “agree to the terms of reconciliation and turn from the offensive behavior”.
What you are saying is contrary to 2000 years of church doctrine, imo.
peace to you
You did not attempt to explain the conflict you have with the wrath of God on sinners and the statements I quoted from scripture. I quoted a passage that says that God was propitiated for the sins of the whole world by the sacrifice of his sinless Son, who was willing to endure the penalty for our sins in a one time offering of himself on the cross for that purpose. This answers to the topic of the op concerning Jesus drawing all men to himself IF he was lifted up. In 2 Corinthians 5, I quoted the apostle saying that God is not imputing personal sins to sinners while they live because the sin problem had been dealt with at the cross where Jesus had been lifted up.
Imagine one coming to God for forgiveness of his sins if Jesus had not been lifted up. A sinner would not have any basis for his appeal for forgiveness when God had declared that a sinner must die for his sins. But, if he said someone else who did not have the sentence of death upon him had been willing to die as his substitute, then there could be no charge of sin against him because his sentence had already been carried out. The scriptures plainly and clearly declares that is exactly what Jesus Christ did and he was complicit with God the Father, the Judge of all the earth, in accomplishing that for sinners long before the creation of the world.
God is reasonable and logical. There is no reason for God to impute sin to anyone who has had their penalty prosecuted. It is only logical that God would receive a man who came to him claiming he was asking for reconciliation because of the cross of Jesus. It would be the only appeal that God would hear from the sinner. What kind of sense would it make if God was angry at sinners after he said he was satisfied with the payment Jesus made for them? Why would he not receive them and give them his Spirit, which is the life of God and is omnipresent and eternal. Consider that the blood that Jesus shed on the cross will wash away the inherent sin the moment it is applied. (Re 1:5 in the KJV & Titus 3:5)
If sin will continue to separate men from God after the cross and resurrection of Jesus Christ, it will not be on God's part but on the sinners part who would refuse to be reconciled to God because he would rather hold on to his sin. The command that God has given after the resurrection of Jesus Christ is for all men to repent. He made this command in Athens, Greece in Acts 17. There is a time that God has reserved when this time of grace to sinners will be over and God will judge men on the earth and destroy all those who have gone their own ways. That time will be when no other sinners will come to God for reconciliation in the name of Jesus Christ.
The doctrine you are preaching is not good news. It is opposite from what God has said about who can be saved and how they are saved.
Acts 17:30
And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent. 31 because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.