It is a challenge to arrive at a theology of God and the origin of evil.What exactly is your question about 1 Sam 16:14-16? Please be specific.
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
It is a challenge to arrive at a theology of God and the origin of evil.What exactly is your question about 1 Sam 16:14-16? Please be specific.
It is a challenge to arrive at a theology of God and the origin of evil.
My challenge is for calvinists on the BB to arrive at a theology of the origin of evil that is consistent with who God is and is in agreement with what 1 Sam 16:14-16 teaches.What are you asking? Are you asking if God is the author of evil?
My challenge is for calvinists on the BB to arrive at a theology of the origin of evil that is consistent with who God is and is in agreement with what 1 Sam 16:14-16 teaches.
I think that many do not recognize the failure in their own theology that they do not include to that extend. What I have found in the past that their view of the sovereignty of God does not include the origin of evil but they essentially ignore it.
OK, I think I understand you. It is true that some Calvinists have said that God is the author of evil, and I have posted those statements by Calvinists several times.
My own personal view is this, in order for there to be true and genuine love, you must have choice. If you truly love God it is because you choose to do so and are not forced. Love is never forced.
I take the position that God created everything and that includes evil. Then we must understand that in light of Jewish culture and understanding. The Jews saw everything in one big circle and God is in that circle. Whereas we tend to compartmentalize everything. So that makes it difficult for us to understand how God could possibly have anything to do with evil.
I also believe that God in His sovereignty created man with the ability to make choices. He made man with no choice in some cases and in other cases he left man with choices. It is like the farmer who puts his cows out to pasture. The cows had no choice in the choice of the pasture but within the boundaties of the pasture they have choice to eat wherever they want.
Most of scripture was written in a Jewish context that is very different than ours which is much closer to a Greek culture. I think that is where a lot of trouble is in interpreting scripture.
Asked and answered. Why do you ignore my answer?My challenge is for calvinists on the BB to arrive at a theology of the origin of evil that is consistent with who God is and is in agreement with what 1 Sam 16:14-16 teaches.
I think where folks get things backwards is believeing we must sin because we are the servants of sin. But if you read the scriptures carefully, you will see that Jesus said the exact opposite. He said we are servants of sin because we sin.
John 8:34 Jesus answered them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whosoever committeth sin is the servant of sin.
Now, read that carefully. Does it say we sin because we are the servants of sin?
Or does it say we are servants of sin because we sin?
What does it say?
Neither. It does not create a causal link in either direction. It neither says that one sins because they are a servant of sin, nor does it say that one is the servant because they sin. It says only that one who sins is a servant of sin.
Consider the same logical structure in these sentences:
Whoever pays taxes to the king is a subject of the king.
Whoever digs ditches is a ditch digger.
Whoever loves their neighbor is a servant of God.
Whoever lives by faith is a believer.
It should be evident that the logical structure of the verse does not necessarily imply causation in EITHER direction. In logic its called a categorical statement (in this case "All P are Q.") By itself, all a categorical statement provides is the truth value of certain relationships between P and Q. For instance, if we know that "All P are Q" is a true statement, then we can know that the statement "Some P are not Q" is false. However, none of the relationships defined by a categorical statement logically imply causation, not unless an actual statement of causation is present in the categorical statement. For instance, "All those with fevers are sick." (no causation either direction) is very different from "All sickness are fever-causers." (or in less formal structure "All sicknesses cause fevers." Without the actual statement of causation, no causal relationship can be implied from a simple categorical statement.
I disagree. Someone who does not pay taxes is not being subject to the king. If you do not dig ditches you cannot be a ditch digger. You aren't born a murderer, you must murder someone to be a murderer, you cannot be a bank robber until you rob a bank. It is the robbing the bank that makes you a bank robber. And the same with sin, you must sin to be a sinner.
The scriptures do not teach that you have to sin because you are a slave to sin. They clearly teach the opposite.
Rom 6:16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?
The word "yield" shows we have a free will choice in the matter. If we yield ourselves to sin we become the servant of sin. If we yield ourselves to obey righteousness we become the servants of righteousness.
That may be true...but thats not what the verse *says*. I am not saying your overall conclusion is wrong but that your attempt to make the verse argue in that way is fallacious. The verse does not say that one must sin in order to be a servant of sin. The verse only says that whoever sins is a servant of sin. Regardless if you are right about one needing to sin in order to be a servant of sin, that is not what the verse says. The two statements are not logical equivalents.
The verse clearly indicates that those who Paul is addressing have the ability to freely yield themselves to one master or another. Who is Paul addressing? Clearly he is addressing believers (see vs. 1-15 of the same chapter). So, all that is clear is that this statement applies to believers. Might it also apply to both believers and unbelievers? Since Paul doesn't clearly restrict to only believers, then yes it might apply to unbelievers as well. However, such a conclusion is not so clear. Whether this applies to unbelievers or not will have a lot to do with what other suppositions you bring to this passage.
Short story, you are partly correct - it clearly indicates the ability to choose freely between masters...but it doesn't clearly teach this is true for unbelievers.
So does Arminianism. In order to avoid this, you have to become a Pelagian, and Pelagianism has been condemned as a heresy for more than 1500 years (if memory serves me correctly).Calvinism teaches that we are born sinners and have no choice but to sin.
That's neither logical nor theological. All men are born sinners and all are responsible for it.If this were so, we would have no personal responsibility for our sin.
So does Arminianism. In order to avoid this, you have to become a Pelagian, and Pelagianism has been condemned as a heresy for more than 1500 years (if memory serves me correctly).
We may not be able to agree on everything, but every Bible believer should agree on that all men are born sinners. It is the only thing that gives us hope for salvation. If you believe that you are made sinful by your sin, then you have to believe that you are made righteous by your righteousness. The Bible, filled with God's grace, in Romans 5 teaches us that because we are made sinful by something we did not do, we can be made righteous by something we did not do. Every true believer affirms the latter. Only inconsistent believers don't affirm the former.
That's neither logical nor theological. All men are born sinners and all are responsible for it.
That is a ridiculous argument. How can you be a sinner if you never sin? Was Jesus a sinner? Why? Because he never sinned.
Well, I'm glad you at least ascribe free will to believers, but the scriptures show all men have free will.
Joshua told the Israelites to choose whom they would serve. Moses told the Jews to make a choice also. What? Moses and Joshua did not understand doctrine?
Joshua 24:15 And if it seem evil unto you to serve the LORD, choose you this day whom ye will serve; whether the gods which your fathers served that [were] on the other side of the flood, or the gods of the Amorites, in whose land ye dwell: but as for me and my house, we will serve the LORD.
Notice Joshua told them to choose "whom ye will serve". If they chose to serve God they would then be the servants of God. If they were totally enslaved, how could they make a choice?
Cain was lost, but God said he could do well and he would be accepted. He also said Cain would rule over sin, but Calvinism teaches the opposite.
Gen 4:7 If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him.
Nobody has to sin. Even before I was saved I knew right from wrong and nobody put a gun to my head. Most of the time I chose to do good, but sometimes I chose to do wrong.
We may not be able to agree on everything, but every Bible believer should agree on that all men are born sinners. It is the only thing that gives us hope for salvation. If you believe that you are made sinful by your sin, then you have to believe that you are made righteous by your righteousness.
Look up what the terms mean in a good theological dictionary (though a bad theological dictionary will still be right).I am neither an Arminian nor a Pelagian.
Not familiar with that passage. I did a quick search and can't find anything. I saw earlier someone reference John 8:34, but I can't imagine you are referring to that because that verse clearly does not say anything about becoming servants of sin. I also saw Romans 6 referenced, but that does not say anything similar either. So we can see that both proof texts don't actually make the point. Perhaps you have come up with something else.I believe what the scriptures say, and both Jesus and Paul said you become servants of sin when you sin.
Rom 5 is clear on this, as is a verse like Psa 51:4. There are others. You are spitting in the face of the entire history of orthodox theology. This isn't really even disputed.Show me one place in the Bible where it says a man is born a sinner.
No, Jesus was God. That is a reference to his virgin birth. They were speaking of being born to an unwed mother. That is a completely different issue than this.The Pharisees accused Jesus of being born in sin, was that correct?
No, I'm making an entirely different argument, one that virtually all believers in church history have made. You are showing you don't understand the point if you think mine is the same as the Pharisees.So, by your reasoning you must be a Pharisee, you are making the same argument they made.
Because having a sin nature doesn't mean we can only sin. Again, you are showing ignorance of the Bible. Sinners do good things because of the image of God in man. The image of God in man prevents man from being as bad as he could be. It is part of God's common grace.Now you explain to me how these Gentiles could by nature do the things contained in the law if their nature was sinful and they could only sin?
If you were not ignorant of the Bible and theology, you would know that there is no wiggling there. This is what has been taught for 2000 years. I think we are seeing that you have been grossly failed by your pastor and your teachers over the years because you do not understand the basic facts.Explain that to me, I would like to see how you wiggle out of this one.
Look up what the terms mean in a good theological dictionary (though a bad theological dictionary will still be right).
Not familiar with that passage. I did a quick search and can't find anything. I saw earlier someone reference John 8:34, but I can't imagine you are referring to that because that verse clearly does not say anything about becoming servants of sin. I also saw Romans 6 referenced, but that does not say anything similar either. So we can see that both proof texts don't actually make the point. Perhaps you have come up with something else.
Rom 5 is clear on this, as is a verse like Psa 51:4. There are others. You are spitting in the face of the entire history of orthodox theology. This isn't really even disputed.
No, Jesus was God. That is a reference to his virgin birth. They were speaking of being born to an unwed mother. That is a completely different issue than this.
No, I'm making an entirely different argument, one that virtually all believers in church history have made. You are showing you don't understand the point if you think mine is the same as the Pharisees.
Because having a sin nature doesn't mean we can only sin. Again, you are showing ignorance of the Bible. Sinners do good things because of the image of God in man. The image of God in man prevents man from being as bad as he could be. It is part of God's common grace.
Total depravity means does not mean that man is as bad as he could be or that all men are equally bad. It means that sin affects every area of man's being. Even the worst of sinners do good things by God's common grace. The "nature" there is the image of God in man.
If you were not ignorant of the Bible and theology, you would know that there is no wiggling there. This is what has been taught for 2000 years. I think we are seeing that you have been grossly failed by your pastor and your teachers over the years because you do not understand the basic facts.
This is not about Cal vs. Arm. It is about basic biblical teaching about the nature of man.
Spend the next week or so in Romans 5:12-21. Do not post here. Just pour yourself into that passage and study it out. Draw pictures and charts, define the words in the original language, pay particular attention to the conjunctions and connecting words. It won't make you a Calvinist, but it will help you to understand how basic this issue is to the salvation of our souls.
Simply put, if what you say is true, then the whole gospel is changed.