Why would the earliest testimonies from a variety of witnesses intentionally delete phrases?
We certainly can't go and ask them, but I would be pretty sure that 'deletions' were accidental, not intentional.
I'm sorry to have been AWOL from this thread up to now, but I'd like to explore the idea that the Byzantine Texts 'harmonize' the different evangelists. Let's consider the Lord's Prayer in Matt 6 and Luke 11.
If this is indeed the Lord's 'pattern' prayer for us, I find it starnge that in the version in Luke according to the NIV, ESV, NASB etc., the Lord Jesus Christ either forgets, or does not think it worthwhile to tell us to pray for God's will to be done on earth, and omits to tell us to pray to be delivered from Satan. In fact, I flatly refuse to believe that our Lord is the author of the horribly truncated prayer that we find in most modern versions of Luke 11.
However, can it be argued that the verion found in the KJV and NKJV is the result of harmonization? I don't think so. Consider:-
Matt 6:13, NKJV.
'.....As we forgive our debtors.'
Luke 11:4, NKJV.
'..... For we also forgive everyone who is indebted to us.'
[I would quote the Greek, which is also different, but I don't know how to get a Greek font on here]
If there was a conspiracy to harmonize the two accounts, why was the job not done completely? Also, why was the doxology at the end of the Matthew version left off in the Luke version? The harmonization theory does not stand up to scrutiny.
The real reason why the Luke version of the Lord's Prayer is so threadbare is that an inattentive scribe missed out portions of it and the error was not picked up until a few copies had been made. Fortunately, the mistake eventually came to light, which is why 98% of the extant manuscripts have the (correct) longer version. :thumbsup:
Steve