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Why Would the More Literal translations NOT be best ones?

Rippon

Well-Known Member
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Some contemporary versions are lackluster English form.

Ha,ha.

Honestly this is difficult. For when I am in the initial steps of discipling someone who is a new believer I start off with a simple, dynamically equivalent translation like the NIV or NLT.

The former is not dynamically-equivalent;the latter is.

In my personal study the translations I produce (but never read aloud in public) are very rigid, formal, and unweildy [sic]things that use old or complex language. It speaks to me...but few others.

Uh huh.
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
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To clarify: Comfort gives reasons why the TR and often the Majority Text has added things. There have been a host of interpolations by the latter two.

"No reasons"? Hardly. The antiquity of the WH NU readings in general are a testament to their authenticity. That,and their diversity.

The additions of the TR and supported by the Majority Text are certainly spurious. Because they have been added.
Unproven.

Question: have you read anything by John Burgon? Maurice Robinson? Any other Byzantine priority scholar? If not, how can you understand the arguments contra the WH or eclectic methods?
 

Rippon

Well-Known Member
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Unproven.

Everything I said was false? please go item by item and tell me if you agree or disagree and why. I really doubt that you object to my whole post.

Question: have you read anything by John Burgon? Maurice Robinson? Any other Byzantine priority scholar? If not, how can you understand the arguments contra the WH or eclectic methods?

I've read snatches of "Dean" Burgon on the internet and transcripts of interviews with Robinson. I don't think the weight of evidence is on the side of Majority Text.
 

John of Japan

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Everything I said was false? please go item by item and tell me if you agree or disagree and why. I really doubt that you object to my whole post.
I didn't say "false," I said "unproven." But if we go down the road of textual criticism we will derail the thread, which is of course about translation.
I've read snatches of "Dean" Burgon on the internet and transcripts of interviews with Robinson. I don't think the weight of evidence is on the side of Majority Text.
If this is all you've read, then you know next to nothing about the arguments in favor of the Byzantine. If you'll educate yourself in this area by reading Robinson's New Testament Textual Criticism: The Case for Byzantine Priority (http://www.reltech.org/TC/v06/Robinson2001.html) and The Identity of the New Testament Text, by Wilbur Pickering (http://www.walkinhiscommandments.com/pickering3b.htm), then I'll debate you on it. I know you love books and read a lot. You should have no trouble with these two. You yourself wouldn't think much of an opponent who parroted the arguments against TULIP without having ever read anything by a Calvinist.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
I didn't say "false," I said "unproven." But if we go down the road of textual criticism we will derail the thread, which is of course about translation.
If this is all you've read, then you know next to nothing about the arguments in favor of the Byzantine. If you'll educate yourself in this area by reading Robinson's New Testament Textual Criticism: The Case for Byzantine Priority (http://www.reltech.org/TC/v06/Robinson2001.html) and The Identity of the New Testament Text, by Wilbur Pickering (http://www.walkinhiscommandments.com/pickering3b.htm), then I'll debate you on it. I know you love books and read a lot. You should have no trouble with these two. You yourself wouldn't think much of an opponent who parroted the arguments against TULIP without having ever read anything by a Calvinist.

would say that those authors at least have evidence of valid scholarship in regards to their assertion of textual anlysis proving the superority of the BZ Greek text compared tothe CT...

Disagree with them on that, but still good solid reading...

Would say that I would feel 'comfortable" with using either BZ text/MT/CT texts to see the english version based upon, but would prefer the CT!
 
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John of Japan

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would say that those authors at least have evidence of valid scholarship in regards to their assertion of textual anlysisproviong the superority of the BZ Greek text compared tothe CT...

Disagree with them on that, but still good solid reading...

Would say that I would feel 'comfortable" with using either BZ text/MT/CT texts to see the english version based upon, but TR "not soo much!"
Pickering became a missionary, and hasn't written anything more on the subject that I know of, but he has the scholarship.

Robinson is the acknowledged scholar for the Byzantine position. IMO, much of what he says remains unanswered by the eclectic people. For example, Barbara Aland seems somewhat feeble in her rebuttle to his demolishing of the eclectic usage of "Rule 9" in Translating the New Testament, ed. by Stanley Porter and Mark Boda.

I'm currently reading Perspectives on the Ending of Mark, ed. by David Alan Black. I've read Daniel Wallace's and Maurice Robinson's contributions. IMO, though Wallace presents a good case for 16:8 as the end of the Gospel, Robinson's for the longer ending is decisive.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Pickering became a missionary, and hasn't written anything more on the subject that I know of, but he has the scholarship.

Robinson is the acknowledged scholar for the Byzantine position. IMO, much of what he says remains unanswered by the eclectic people. For example, Barbara Aland seems somewhat feeble in her rebuttle to his demolishing of the eclectic usage of "Rule 9" in Translating the New Testament, ed. by Stanley Porter and Mark Boda.

I'm currently reading Perspectives on the Ending of Mark, ed. by David Alan Black. I've read Daniel Wallace's and Maurice Robinson's contributions. IMO, though Wallace presents a good case for 16:8 as the end of the Gospel, Robinson's for the longer ending is decisive.

Dr Wallace works in the field of the Greek new testament is top notch, as he shows us how one can hold to inerrancy/infallibility of the Bible without 'giving in" to modern critical scholarship trying to give us a "less than" Bible!

see his work on demolishing bart ehrman attempt to discredit the greek NT!

have no problem with us disagreeing on things like this, as long as we come withearnest "real" schorlership, just at times get heated, as both sides here would use "less than reasons" and appeal to emotional responses!
 
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John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Dr Wallace works in the field of the Greek new testament is top notch, as he shows us how one can hold to inerrancy/infallibility of the Bible without 'giving in" to modern critical scholarship trying to give us a "less than" Bible!

see his work on demolishing bart ehrman attempt to discredit the greek NT!

have no problem with us disagreeing on things like this, as long as we come withearnest "real" schorlership, just at times get heated, as both sides here would use "less than reasons" and appeal to emotional responses!
I agree with all of this. Wallace's contributions are very large. His Greek grammar is a huge help, and I'm fascinated by how he's digitalizing the mss, even finding some new ones in the process.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Reply to John of Japan

Where in the world did you get this bogus figure? Do you have a source?

A quick look at the TR text of 3 John reveals a word count of 220. A CT I have has 211. That's just 11 words different, hardly 10%.

You are right, my belief was in error. I had read where the KJV was 110% of the Word of God, suggesting it was chock full of additions. Somehow, my recall scrambled the reference.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Reply to Martin

You seem to be a little confused here. To filter something is to remove stuff, not to add anything.

Your 10% figure is plucked from the air, but the TR and MT do have more words than the CT. My view is that a copyist would be far more likely to leave something out by accident than to put something in.

The reasons for taking stuff out, which Rippon inflicts upon us so often, either provide no reasons at all, or spurious ones.

Steve

Any time someone expresses concern for how something is expressed rather than the underlying idea, evasion is in the air.

As it turned out I did pluck a bogus number out of my memory. It has no basis in fact, and I regret the error.

The accepted view, which we should not accept dogmatically, is that the shorter reading is probably closer to the original. When your theory was tested, it failed.

The obvious efforts at harmonization, which you ignore, demonstrate that many of Rippon's examples are spot on.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Reply to Deacon,

I worked through 1 Cor 7:1 in SS class last week. The idiom "s*xuPal relations" used in the ESV is fairly well documented in Greek extra-biblical literature. However the NIV84 went to far in its translation "It is good for a man not to marry" ... this was corrected in the TNIV and the recent update to the NIV.

“It is good for a man not to have s*xu*al relations with a woman.”
1 Corinthians 7:1 (NIV)

As for being consistent and translating Proverbs similarly; it was written much earlier and with different language traditions. Different rules apply.

Rob

My source suggested "touch a women" is a Hebrew-ism, a way to expressing euphemistically having relations with a mate. And the Septuagint is not all that old from a first century view. The same figure of speech should be translated concordantly so one verse will bring to mind another verse using the same figure of speech.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
I agree with all of this. Wallace's contributions are very large. His Greek grammar is a huge help, and I'm fascinated by how he's digitalizing the mss, even finding some new ones in the process.

have you checked out his blogs on Bible.org? Especially his entries on bart ehrmens and on a side note another view on charasmatics? he is onewho holds to ceasing Gifts, but still good to read by either side of that issue!
 

Robert Snow

New Member
I heard Dr. Fred Afman, professor at Tennessee Temple University, say during the beginning of an Old Testament survey course that he didn't care which version we read (we were required to read through the OT during the course), he was concerned with which translation we lived.

In todays America few of the high school graduates will be able to understand a version such as the KJV. This isn't a knock on this venerable version, just a statement of facts, as I see them.

I would rather a person find a good translation they can understand, and one that will lead them to love Christ more and serve Him better, rather than be stuck with a version they cannot understand and therefore seldom read, let alone understand.

My wife works at a Christian bookstore in a less than affluent neighborhood. She finds that people buy the NIV and the NLT more than the others. They can understand them better.
 

mandym

New Member
All the hoopla over having a translation one understands is sad. Understanding scripture is work regardless of one's translation. Folks do not want to put the work needed to study. It just cannot happen that way. The whole translation issue is a false argument.
 

Robert Snow

New Member
All the hoopla over having a translation one understands is sad. Understanding scripture is work regardless of one's translation. Folks do not want to put the work needed to study. It just cannot happen that way. The whole translation issue is a false argument.

Stay with you KJV, and let others choose what God speak to them through. After all, I don't think God called you to be the translation police.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Stay with you KJV, and let others choose what God speak to them through. After all, I don't think God called you to be the translation police.

My bible states to us that God sees it as 1 faith/Lord/baptism etc BUT

NOT stating just "1 bible version!"
 
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