Gal 3:2 Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
Does/Did God shed and or send the Spirit for us to receive within one, because someone has decided to have faith in or has been convinced to have faith in Jesus Christ;
OR
Did/Dose God shed and or send the Spirit to be received within one, because of the faith of Jesus Christ which we heard about from one sent to preach?
What does the word of God teach? Do all the translations teach the same thing concerning this question?
What do the best of the interlinear translations teach concerning this question and just what are the best of the interlinear translations?
I read the Greek interlinear from Scripture4all.org which I believe is taken from the TR and also W&H Original Greek New Testament which I believe is taken from GNT Morph
Because I believe the very root of justification is by the blood (death) of Jesus which comes from Romans 5:9 I do not know how it could be any clearer than that: By his blood one is justified (made righteous)
Then I believe the correct translation of say Gal 2:16 would be {that we might be justified by the faith of Christ,} That is the faith of Jesus in shedding his blood unto death and God the Father raising him from the dead. Of course to believe this I understand that Jesus the only begotten of the Father actually had to die. I mean be dead. The same understanding of Romans 3:22 Even the righteousness of God by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: (We are made believers by receiving the Spirit that comes by the faith of Jesus Christ because we are his sheep) Now understand verse 25 of Rom 3 Whom (That is Jesus), God (The Father) hath set forth a propitiation (A mercy seat, Jesus, the Father made a mercy seat. Why?) through the faith in his blood. It was through the faith of Jesus even unto the death of the cross, God made him the mercy seat.
According to mercy he saved us, (Jesus the mercy seat) How? by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Spirit;
Through the faith of Jesus in dying (shed blood) God the Father raised him from the dead (regeneration) and the renewing of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:32,33 This Jesus hath God raised up (resurrection/regeneration) Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit,
Because of the hearing of the above faith; then and only then was the Spirit shed on anyone else.
Show me from scripture why this is not the correct understanding of the quoted scriptures. Please do not make statements such as Jesus didn't need this because he is God or Jesus didn't have to have that to happen because Jesus is God. Just show from these or any other scriptures that the above isn't correct.