Aaron said:
Was Paul a holist when he said, a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump? You need to get a clue.
You have to prove that rhythm is leaven. Your whole argument starts from these unproven correlations that are treated as if they are their own authority.
Revisionist history. The sources I cited are both pro-African paganism. For them, these are virtues of their music.
And just as I said, the source is a non-Christian to whom all things are impure. That "pro-African" line won't work, because he obviously is portrayed as a "bad person", and his support of "African beats" is supposed to be the ultimate proof they arebad.
cc's request was for empirical evidence of the sensual nature of certain kinds of music. What you need to counter it is empirical evidence against it, not some fable you make up in your own head.
It was not empirical evidence, it was a bunch of associations generalized from etymological references, that ignore the spiritual aspect of the issue. That to the impure, all things are impure, so what they called the music and used it for does not necessarily make it wrong for everyone else.
That's a lie, but for the sake of argument, indulge me one more time, for rbell's sake.
No ancient Hebrew notation exists, except perhaps in the Masoretic texts, and what survives today in the synagogal chant is disconnected from its Hebrew roots by centuries and corrupted by the influence of occupying nations.
But...judging from Paul's admonitions to the Ephesians who contrasted psalms to the sensuality of the surrounding culture, I'm confident the Psalms sounded nothing like what we would call rock/jazz/blues today.
The Lion
Encyclopedia of the Bible,
[SIZE=-1](Lion Publishing, 1978, previously
Eerdmans Family Encyclopedia of the Bible, Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Co.)[/SIZE]
p. 191 says "
And the music seems to have been strongly rhythmic rather than melodic, although there were set tunes to some of the psalms.". What I see happening, is that people read of "harps and strings" in the scriptures, and think of mellow symphonic music, and thus are reading that into the text. However, it was quite different from that style. This is the music of biblical (mid-eastern) culture, not medieval European chants, as people are assuming. While some make a big deal about the drum's absence in scripture, and even claim it should not be used,
there were several other percussion instruments mentioned. Totally ignored is the presence of
dancing in the Bible. The Hebrew definitions include "twist", "whirl", and even "writhe" (as in pleasure or pain). It may not have been the sensuous dancing of today, but it completely disproves the whole "flesh/Spirit" argument, which is being read into Gal.5:17 and others, and taught with such supposedly "scriptural" authority. (i.e. that any 'fleshy pleasure' makes it "of the flesh" rather than "of the Spirit", and that music therefore should only lead to sitting stiffly or marching) Like music, it was also used negatively (as in the golden calf incident), but [SIZE=-1]NEVER[/SIZE] afterwards forbidden because of that 'association'. The Encyclopedia continues: "Dancing too, was often apart of people's joyful expression of worship".
GOD ACCEPTED IT! (Ps.149:3, 2 Sam.6:14-23) This omission of dancing is
just not dealing honestly with the scriptures!
So this worship may have looked and sounded somewhat similar to the pagans, but this shows that while music may not be neutral, the context does change it, and that the most important issue is [SIZE=-1]WHO [/SIZE]the worship is actually being directed to, not how much evil a particular style may have been used for.