Who is Don Preston? The founder of preterism teaching or some other person?
Don Preston is a very good Preterist writer and debater, but not the founder of it. I would say who that is, but I already have my hands full! :saint:
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Who is Don Preston? The founder of preterism teaching or some other person?
That's it, is it? I was expecting a little more. OK. Luke 21:8. 'Take heed that you not be deceived. For many will come in My name, saying, "I am He," and "The time has drawn near." Therefore do not go after them.' Our Lord is telling His disciples not to go after those who forecast His early return.Yes, we did. I had written:
And, yes, Jerusalem is very much the topic. Just look at the verses just before and just after the ones I quoted.
Too right! If I were a moderator I would not allow Hyper-preterism on the board.I see I merited the Caesarean thumbs down.
A consistent hermeneutic is absolutely vital. Obviously it is possible to be consistently wrong, but playing fast and loose with the Scriptures is the hallmark of the false teacher.Consistent? And this is a good thing? Consistency of interpretation (spiritual or literal) would be wrong, seeing that there are both kinds of passages. I assume you agree.
That's it, is it? I was expecting a little more. OK. Luke 21:8. 'Take heed that you not be deceived. For many will come in My name, saying, "I am He," and "The time has drawn near." Therefore do not go after them.' Our Lord is telling His disciples not to go after those who forecast His early return.
Too right! If I were a moderator I would not allow Hyper-preterism on the board.
Earlier you wrote:-
A consistent hermeneutic is absolutely vital. Obviously it is possible to be consistently wrong, but playing fast and loose with the Scriptures is the hallmark of the false teacher.
Steve
I will continue to call out the absurdities of Hyper-preterism as I have time and if permitted by the mods, in order to try and prevent others being deceived by it.Asterisktom said:Why even waste your time, Steve, discussing doctrine with a false teacher like me?
To apply Zechariah 14 to the church you would have to overlook all the Jewish related aspects of the chapter (Jerusalem, festivals, etc).
Don Preston makes a comparison between Zechariah 14 and the Olivet discourse and also to Revelation. It's hard to see these unmistakeable similarities and not realize they are describing the same event. Obviously you would have to think the Olivet Discourse and Revelation are about the Church to think Zechariah 14 is about the Church.
Of course since these all relate to the same event and Old Covenant Jerusalem fades into history in 70AD as all things are fulfilled this helps the reader to be sure that the destruction of Jerusalem is the topic at hand not some future battle of Christianity.
Particularly uniting is "E" since these are the only times an event is described as known only to the Lord (that I've been able to ever find reference to) in the bible.
Here is a summary of Preston's comparisons.
Match the letters up in each category:
Zechariah 14
A. Siege of Jerusalem 1-2
B. Day of the Lord 1, 5
C. Coming with his holy ones 5
D. Jews led away captive into the nations 2
E. Day known only to the Lord 7
Olivet Discourse
A. Siege of Jerusalem Mt. 24:2f
B. Coming of the Son of Man 24:30-31
C. Coming with his angels 24:31
D. Jews led away captive into the nations, Luke 21:24
E. Day known only to the Lord 24-36
Don also does a great job comparing Zechariah 14 to Revelation
Zechariah
A. Coming of the Lord with His Saints, 14:5
B. Earthquake at the Day of the Lord, 14:4-5
C. Earthquake and Coming of the Lord at siege of Jerusalem, 14:1-5
D. Time of light, 14:7
E. River of living waters, 14:8
F. The Lord shall be King over the earth, 14:9
G. Exaltation of Zion, 14:10
H. No more curse, curse removed, 14:11
I. Nations coming to New Jerusalem with their wealth, 14:14
J. Nations observing Feast of Tabernacles, 14:16-20
Revelation
A. Coming of the Lord with His Saints 14:14f; 19:11f
B. Earthquake at the Day of the Lord, 6:12-17; 11:13; 16
C. Earthquake and Coming of the Lord at judgment of city "where the Lord was crucified" 11:8-13
D. Time of light, 21:23
E. River of life, 22:1
F. The Lord is King of the earth, 11:15; 19:16; 22:3
G. Exaltation of Zion, 14, 21
H. No more curse, curse removed, 22:3
I. Nations coming to New Jerusalem with their wealth, 21:24
J. Nations observing Feast of Tabernacles, 7:9-17* (vs. 17 also has the fountain of living waters)
I will continue to call out the absurdities of Hyper-preterism as I have time and if permitted by the mods, in order to try and prevent others being deceived by it.
Steve
That's it, is it? I was expecting a little more. OK. Luke 21:8. 'Take heed that you not be deceived. For many will come in My name, saying, "I am He," and "The time has drawn near." Therefore do not go after them.' Our Lord is telling His disciples not to go after those who forecast His early return.
A consistent hermeneutic is absolutely vital. Obviously it is possible to be consistently wrong, but playing fast and loose with the Scriptures is the hallmark of the false teacher.
You are not really very qualified to know what a false teacher looks like. In a previous thread, in your offensive against me, the very first assumed "proof" you had against me was the "creeds and Protestant confessions". That is not the way to spot a false teacher. Martin Luther - more of a Berean Martin than you are - was faulted in just the same way.
Don't see anywhere in this where 70 A.D. and Christ return for His Church and His 2nd Advent are connected, it proves there are sevaral events yet to be fufilled for Israel, the biggest thing being the last 3 feast being literally fulfilled as the first four were.
Matthew 5:17
Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished.
Christ tells us that he came to fulfill the law and until it all passes away none of it passes away.
Therefore either all the prophecy concerning Jerusalem has been fulfilled already or else we need to keep the Law and not turn to Christ for salvation.
If you think the words of Christ have any meaning then all prophecies pertaining to Jerusalem have been fulfilled as Christ stated.
Luke 21:32
Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all has taken place.
That would leave but two choices either the generation Christ was addressing is still alive today and we are still living under the law or all things were fulfilled in the first generation.
Just read this in a straight forward manner and don’t inject your previous thinking that Christ’s return is in the future and how would you come to the conclusion that there is any prophecy left concerning Jerusalem to be fulfilled?
Matthew 5:17
Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished.
Christ tells us that he came to fulfill the law and until it all passes away none of it passes away.
Therefore either all the prophecy concerning Jerusalem has been fulfilled already or else we need to keep the Law and not turn to Christ for salvation.
If you think the words of Christ have any meaning then all prophecies pertaining to Jerusalem have been fulfilled as Christ stated.
Luke 21:32
Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all has taken place.
That would leave but two choices either the generation Christ was addressing is still alive today and we are still living under the law or all things were fulfilled in the first generation.
Just read this in a straight forward manner and don’t inject your previous thinking that Christ’s return is in the future and how would you come to the conclusion that there is any prophecy left concerning Jerusalem to be fulfilled?
18 For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished
Heaven and earth have not yet passed away and yet Jesus taught that until they did not an iota or dot of the scripture would pass away. When the Law in the Old Testament is refered to it is refereing to the Pentatatuch (sp), the first 5 books of the bible.
(Underlining from your quote is mine.)The truth of them in Jesus's day is the dsame truth as today. The difference we don't need the sacrifices in our time because Christ fuflfilled the first 4 and the other 3 still apply to Israel and His gathering them in and sitting on the Throne of David.
By "Law" Jesus meant any and all divine commandments in the OT. This is shown by the variety of examples Jesus draws from in these three chapters, Matt. 5-7.
(Underlining from your quote is mine.)
But you are going against your verse you just quoted. Christ said not a single part of the Law - the tiniest part - will pass away until all is fulfilled.
You are saying which parts of the Law have already passed away.
Christ said all the parts will pass away together.
You say that some parts are still valid.
Do you see the problem?
By "Law" Jesus meant any and all divine commandments in the OT. This is shown by the variety of examples Jesus draws from in these three chapters, Matt. 5-7.
(Underlining from your quote is mine.)
But you are going against your verse you just quoted. Christ said not a single part of the Law - the tiniest part - will pass away until all is fulfilled.
You are saying which parts of the Law have already passed away.
Christ said all the parts will pass away together.
You say that some parts are still valid.
Do you see the problem?
Does fulfillment mean they passed away or that they have been completed and are now a better sacrifice or new application to them, the true Sacrifice has made atonement for all and is being carried out everytime someone comes to salvation, He came to fulfill the Law not do away with It.
Matthew 5:
16Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father which is in heaven.
17Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
18For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Seems very clear Christ fulfilled part of Prophecy concerning His first coming, and will fulfill prophecy with His second coming and not one iota or dot will pass away from scripture until all be fulfilled. By your theory if Christ fulfilled His coming in 70 A.D. all is fulfilled and heaven and earth should have passed away. He said "Till heaven and earth pass" They have not yet passed. "one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law" not one has but they have been fulfilled. Christ coming and dieing on the cross fulfilled parts of the Law and prophecy. Then He concluded that "till all be fulfilled" the earth would not pass until the fulfillment of all the law, O.T. prophecy and N.T. prophecy have all been fulfilled. That has yet to happen because the Heaven and earth of Jesus day still exist today.
No, "heaven and earth" do not exist today. Not the "heaven and earth" that Jesus was speaking about. We bring so much of our own worldview into Scripture that we have a hard time understanding Bible terminology.
The heavens and earth refer to the Jewish dispensation.
"The vision of Isaiah the son of Amoz, which he saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah. 2 Hear, O heavens, and give ear, O earth! For the LORD has spoken: "I have nourished and brought up children, And they have rebelled against Me;" Isaiah 1:1-2
Now, is God speaking to all of the Earth here? Is He speaking to the heavens? No. He is speaking to Israel; according to context, to "Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah".
"But I am the LORD your God, Who divided the sea whose waves roared; The LORD of hosts is His name. 16 And I have put My words in your mouth; I have covered you with the shadow of My hand, That I may plant the heavens, Lay the foundations of the earth, And say to Zion, 'You are My people.'" Isaiah 51:15-16
When did God create the Heavens and Earth? According to this passage it was when He divided the Red Sea. No, I am not denying the physical creation as described in Genesis 1, but that is not the topic here. And - once again, focusing on this passage in Isaiah - what were the accompanying results of this dividing of the Sea?
1. The planting of the heavens,
2. The laying of the foundations of the earth, and
3. The saying to Zion, "You are My people".
It is this "heavens and earth" Jesus is referring to in Matt. 5:18.
Peter, writing three decades later, but still before the Parousia, describes this same heavens and earth:
"But the heavens and the earth which are now preserved by the same word, are reserved for fire until the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." 2 Peter. 3:7
Peter is looking forward to the time that Isaiah had written of:
"For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind." Isaiah 65:17 (KJV)
Once again, we have a hard time appreciating the context of Christ's words because we are so attuned to our own understanding of the phrase "heavens and earth", not the Scriptural intent.
Excellent post Tom.
No, "heaven and earth" do not exist today. Not the "heaven and earth" that Jesus was speaking about. We bring so much of our own worldview into Scripture that we have a hard time understanding Bible terminology.
The heavens and earth refer to the Jewish dispensation.
"The vision of Isaiah the son of Amoz, which he saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah. 2 Hear, O heavens, and give ear, O earth! For the LORD has spoken: "I have nourished and brought up children, And they have rebelled against Me;" Isaiah 1:1-2
Now, is God speaking to all of the Earth here? Is He speaking to the heavens? No. He is speaking to Israel; according to context, to "Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah".
"But I am the LORD your God, Who divided the sea whose waves roared; The LORD of hosts is His name. 16 And I have put My words in your mouth; I have covered you with the shadow of My hand, That I may plant the heavens, Lay the foundations of the earth, And say to Zion, 'You are My people.'" Isaiah 51:15-16
When did God create the Heavens and Earth? According to this passage it was when He divided the Red Sea. No, I am not denying the physical creation as described in Genesis 1, but that is not the topic here. And - once again, focusing on this passage in Isaiah - what were the accompanying results of this dividing of the Sea?
1. The planting of the heavens,
2. The laying of the foundations of the earth, and
3. The saying to Zion, "You are My people".
It is this "heavens and earth" Jesus is referring to in Matt. 5:18.
Peter, writing three decades later, but still before the Parousia, describes this same heavens and earth:
"But the heavens and the earth which are now preserved by the same word, are reserved for fire until the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." 2 Peter. 3:7
Peter is looking forward to the time that Isaiah had written of:
"For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind." Isaiah 65:17 (KJV)
Once again, we have a hard time appreciating the context of Christ's words because we are so attuned to our own understanding of the phrase "heavens and earth", not the Scriptural intent.
No, "heaven and earth" do not exist today. Not the "heaven and earth" that Jesus was speaking about. We bring so much of our own worldview into Scripture that we have a hard time understanding Bible terminology.
The heavens and earth refer to the Jewish dispensation.
"The vision of Isaiah the son of Amoz, which he saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah. 2 Hear, O heavens, and give ear, O earth! For the LORD has spoken: "I have nourished and brought up children, And they have rebelled against Me;" Isaiah 1:1-2
Now, is God speaking to all of the Earth here? Is He speaking to the heavens? No. He is speaking to Israel; according to context, to "Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah".
"But I am the LORD your God, Who divided the sea whose waves roared; The LORD of hosts is His name. 16 And I have put My words in your mouth; I have covered you with the shadow of My hand, That I may plant the heavens, Lay the foundations of the earth, And say to Zion, 'You are My people.'" Isaiah 51:15-16
When did God create the Heavens and Earth? According to this passage it was when He divided the Red Sea. No, I am not denying the physical creation as described in Genesis 1, but that is not the topic here. And - once again, focusing on this passage in Isaiah - what were the accompanying results of this dividing of the Sea?
1. The planting of the heavens,
2. The laying of the foundations of the earth, and
3. The saying to Zion, "You are My people".
It is this "heavens and earth" Jesus is referring to in Matt. 5:18.
Peter, writing three decades later, but still before the Parousia, describes this same heavens and earth:
"But the heavens and the earth which are now preserved by the same word, are reserved for fire until the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." 2 Peter. 3:7
Peter is looking forward to the time that Isaiah had written of:
"For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind." Isaiah 65:17 (KJV)
Once again, we have a hard time appreciating the context of Christ's words because we are so attuned to our own understanding of the phrase "heavens and earth", not the Scriptural intent.
No, "heaven and earth" do not exist today. Not the "heaven and earth" that Jesus was speaking about. We bring so much of our own worldview into Scripture that we have a hard time understanding Bible terminology.
The heavens and earth refer to the Jewish dispensation.
"The vision of Isaiah the son of Amoz, which he saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah. 2 Hear, O heavens, and give ear, O earth! For the LORD has spoken: "I have nourished and brought up children, And they have rebelled against Me;" Isaiah 1:1-2
Now, is God speaking to all of the Earth here? Is He speaking to the heavens? No. He is speaking to Israel; according to context, to "Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah".
"But I am the LORD your God, Who divided the sea whose waves roared; The LORD of hosts is His name. 16 And I have put My words in your mouth; I have covered you with the shadow of My hand, That I may plant the heavens, Lay the foundations of the earth, And say to Zion, 'You are My people.'" Isaiah 51:15-16
When did God create the Heavens and Earth? According to this passage it was when He divided the Red Sea. No, I am not denying the physical creation as described in Genesis 1, but that is not the topic here. And - once again, focusing on this passage in Isaiah - what were the accompanying results of this dividing of the Sea?
1. The planting of the heavens,
2. The laying of the foundations of the earth, and
3. The saying to Zion, "You are My people".
It is this "heavens and earth" Jesus is referring to in Matt. 5:18.
Peter, writing three decades later, but still before the Parousia, describes this same heavens and earth:
"But the heavens and the earth which are now preserved by the same word, are reserved for fire until the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." 2 Peter. 3:7
Peter is looking forward to the time that Isaiah had written of:
"For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind." Isaiah 65:17 (KJV)
Once again, we have a hard time appreciating the context of Christ's words because we are so attuned to our own understanding of the phrase "heavens and earth", not the Scriptural intent.