I happen to have an ebook with the facts.I will be happy to email you the book free of charge if your (sic)up to the facts.
God bless you to.(sic)
Steven.
You and "facts" are antithetical to one another.
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I happen to have an ebook with the facts.I will be happy to email you the book free of charge if your (sic)up to the facts.
God bless you to.(sic)
Steven.
Or even worse, one could actually be a "Southern Baptist" according to one poster.He could well be a Jesuit pretending to be a Protestant.Christianity is full of them.
Or even worse, one could actually be a "Southern Baptist" according to one poster.![]()
There are a lot of "them thar'" 'SBC' types around as well, you know.
Ed
Since this is my threadand has been completely hijacked, I would like to expand my original question to what makes one set of manuscripts more accurate than another.
For instance, it is said often that the texts that were used to translate the "modern" versions are different from the texts used to translate the KJV and are more accurate.
How can anyone know they are more accurate unless one can compare them to the originals?
I'm not saying they aren't more accurate, I just don't understand how one can be sure they are.
Apology accepted. It's really pretty normal. I wasn't really complaining, that's why I put the grinning face in my post.Sister I am sorry and apologize to you for hijacking your thread.
I will share this link to a book by A.W.Pink the divine inspiration of the Bible.
http://www.pbministries.org/books/pink/Inspiration/inspiration.htm
God in Jesus bless you.
Apology accepted. It's really pretty normal. I wasn't really complaining, that's why I put the grinning face in my post.
That's a lot of reading. Did he write a chapter on the different texts used in translating?
Thank you so much.I really can`t answer that for you but here is a link to the Westcott and Hort controversy its worth a look.
http://www.pbministries.org/Parachurch/bible/Westcott_Hort_controversy.htm
God bless you in Jesus.
Steven.
With out looking at the referrences made here. I would say that scholars would attempt to look at all the text first to see what comonalities there are in all the text. These would then be considered to be most likely to be comparable to the original text. Where divergence comes into play they would then compare the oldest text available and make a decision. based on how close the translation is to the intent with the oldest texts extant. Fortunately for us is the Qumran find which gives us an even older text to review modern text against. However, beyond that its mostly speculation. Now when it comes to the TR we see translations filling in the gaps coming from Jeromes Latin Vulgate. Which is itself a translation from Greek text that were extant during Jeromes life. So you have Greek and hebrew translated into Latin and being translated into another form of Greek for the TR. So talk about a confused source text!Since this is my threadand has been completely hijacked, I would like to expand my original question to what makes one set of manuscripts more accurate than another.
For instance, it is said often that the texts that were used to translate the "modern" versions are different from the texts used to translate the KJV and are more accurate.
How can anyone know they are more accurate unless one can compare them to the originals?
I'm not saying they aren't more accurate, I just don't understand how one can be sure they are.
With out looking at the referrences made here. I would say that scholars would attempt to look at all the text first to see what comonalities there are in all the text. These would then be considered to be most likely to be comparable to the original text. Where divergence comes into play they would then compare the oldest text available and make a decision. based on how close the translation is to the intent with the oldest texts extant. Fortunately for us is the Qumran find which gives us an even older text to review modern text against. However, beyond that its mostly speculation. Now when it comes to the TR we see translations filling in the gaps coming from Jeromes Latin Vulgate. Which is itself a translation from Greek text that were extant during Jeromes life. So you have Greek and hebrew translated into Latin and being translated into another form of Greek for the TR. So talk about a confused source text!
I'm sorry pilgrim, you're confussed. Note: I am not a bible scholar yet I do know some basic truths. the Old latin Text is not the Vulgate. Jerome certainly knew of the Old Latin text. Wanting to make it more current he used it as well as older sources he could personally view. Jerome translated the bible into the comon latin or the use of a latin term into the vulgar latin. Or what we know know as Latin Vulgate. Note that the Old latin text used the Greek translations or the LXX or Septuagint. Jerome was insistant to use original Hebrew and Aramaic text as he could find them. But there were difficulty in finding hebrew for all the text like psalms so he translated them from the LXX. So you're wrong about that one. Note the Alexandrian text differed stylistically and show brevity and austerity not polished like the Byzantine text. Note this is understandable when you understand the nature of languages Greek and latin had more poetic older versions of the language. There was a particular method of speaking in the older forms that made it poetical. More flowery is more like it. As the language devoloped its later versions were more typical of common vernacular. Alexandrian is this later type. Byzantine is not. Note that the Byzantine text has several purposely altered text to combine two or more divergent text into one passage or conflageration in an attempt to harmonize paralle passages. So it seems theres a bit more reading for you to do with the text.
Well regarding the Septuagint Jesus nor Paul ever quoted it and it has been exposed as a fraud.
http://www.moresureword.com/LXXHOAX.htm
God bless in Jesus name.
Steven.
1. Qumran. This community considered itself to be the true remnant of Israel, and was thusly even more 'pure' than the Pharisees of the day. This community is associated with those documents known as the Dead Sea Scrolls. These are dated in three periods: Archaic (250-150 bc), Hasmonean (150-30 BC), and Herodian (30 bc-70 ad).
These Dead Sea Scrolls show usage of LXX, Samaritan, and various proto-MT textual traditions. One of the standard TC works today is Emmanual Tov of Hebrew University [OT:TCHB]. Only 60% of the texts found there agree with the MT (OT:TCHB:115). That's leaves 40% that vary. Let me show this from some of his material.
"Before the Qumran discoveries S [symbol for Samaritan text] was thought to be an ancient text, whose nature could not be determined more precisely beyond its popular character. However, since the discovery in Qumran of texts which are exceedingly close to S, this situation has changed...The best preserved pre-Samaritan text is 4QpaleoExod(m) of which large sections of 44 columns from Exodus 6 to 37 have been preserved...The main feature characterizing these texts is the appearance of harmonizing additions within Exodus and Numbers taken from Deuteronomy...This feature links these texts exclusively with S." [OT:TCHB:97-99. He also lists 4Q158 and 4Qtest (=4Q175) as following S.]
I apologize of my attitude seems harsh but I think this kind of content deserves it.
Sometimes a hard head heeds hard words where soft ones will simply slip by.
Truth IS hard.
Oh, I see, some people get accused of being mean and hateful, while others get an "OK" when it agrees with the "good ole boys" on here. This forum REEKS of favoritism, and you are in serious denial of that fact.
Oh, I see, some people get accused of being mean and hateful, while others get an "OK" when it agrees with the "good ole boys" on here. This forum REEKS of favoritism, and you are in serious denial of that fact.
Well regarding the Septuagint Jesus nor Paul ever quoted it and it has been exposed as a fraud.
http://www.moresureword.com/LXXHOAX.htm
God bless in Jesus name.
Steven.