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IF You Hold Gospel is To ALL men: Interprete John 8:42-47!

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JesusFan, Jul 13, 2011.

  1. Robert Snow

    Robert Snow New Member

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    Thanks for the laugh, after reading many of your postings, I needed it! :laugh:
     
  2. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    No, its that there are shades of meaning implied/intended in the Greek text that is hard to pick up and show in even best English versions

    Its to be seen as Jesus implieing that the reason that Both pharisees and other jewish peoples he is addressing will die in their sins is due to them NOT being born of God, under satan, and they are 'blind" to Him and will indeed die ion their sins!
     
  3. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Actually. there are places in Bible where "If' could.should be seen as being "since!"

    When paul wrote "if you continue to be steadfast in the faith" He wrote it as being imoplied that since they would remain true, they would keep on growing in God!
     
  4. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    There is no quantifiable reason in the Greek for this word to be translated as 'since' and it is for THAT reason you will not find, or RARELY find it so.
     
  5. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Right, and only you Reformed/Calvinists know what the proper word should be. :laugh:

    These types of arguments are silly if you believe what the scriptures say, that all scripture is by inspiration of God.

    2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

    If God had wanted to say since, he could easily have said since. This is similar to the argument when Calvinists say Jesus did not die for all men, but only the elect. Isn't God smart enough to say that? Couldn't God have simply said, "Jesus died for the elect only"? I am just an average guy, but I could easily figure out how to say Jesus died for the elect only without using misleading words like "all" or "every man" when I really meant "the elect only".

    What is it? Do you think God is stupid and does not know how to properly express himself, or do you just think all non-Cals are idiots and are fooled by these ridiculous arguments? I get the impression that Ref/Cals believe both, they feel a great need to tell people "what God REALLY meant to say".

    The word "since" occurs 70 times in the KJB. So, it isn't like the Holy Spirit doesn't know this word. If Jesus had wanted to say "since" in John 8:24, he could have easily done so. He used the word "if" because these men had choice. If they believed they would be saved, if they believed not they would die in their sins.

    It seems Calvinists could come up with better arguments than this, the only persons convinced by these silly arguments are Calvinists themselves! So, who are the ones easily fooled?
     
    #25 Winman, Jul 14, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 14, 2011
  6. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    I have NEVER accussed non cal Christians as being "dumb/stupid" etc though!

    Just was stating that at times there are indeed passages/verses that have a part to them for interpretation that even good English versions"miss" to a degree, as just not possible to get full nuance from hebrew/Greek into English!
     
  7. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    This reminds me of some guys who were on the board a few years ago and have since (pun intended) been banned for their heretical beliefs. They insisted that the word "eternal" did not mean eternal or forever or everlasting, but instead meant "for a certain period of time". They were never able to prove this but were very critical of others for their lack of education in not knowing this. Sound familiar?
     
  8. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    why so much rancor towards those of us who have NOT been involved here in :name calling/talking down to" etc?
     
  9. preacher4truth

    preacher4truth Active Member

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    My point. :thumbsup:
     
  10. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    The problem is that us non-Cals are uneducated. The first thing we need to be a true scholar is a good Calvinist dictionary. I found this one online.

    We need to add the word "if" to this now.

    If: Since
     
  11. preacher4truth

    preacher4truth Active Member

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    You just happen to be incorrect. It doesn't have to be from the Greek, but in the context.

    In other words it (if) implies "since" since it also means "forasmuch" which is in the Greek definition of "if." Thus, if is used also as, not always calling into question, but supporting the flow of thought as "forasmuch." Colossians 3:1, for instance.

    It's not that hard, really.

    - Peace
     
  12. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Just might to add to the Arms lexicon though term "Fruit of the Holy Spirit"

    at least for those who seem to become so angry at cals for no good reason!
    thanks!
     
  13. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    It was decreed that we would be angry at Calvinists, didn't you know that?
     
  14. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Nice!

    Now if we can just get for you the "laughter by the Holy Ghost!"
     
  15. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    If it is decreed, it will surely come to pass.

    Edit- Oops! I almost forgot: SINCE it is decreed, it will surely come to pass.

    I know those two statements mean exactly the same thing, because I have now been taught the proper meaning of the word "if".
     
    #35 Winman, Jul 14, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 14, 2011
  16. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Just curious, was sarcasim one of the fruits of the HS My Bible forgot to include in it?
     
  17. preacher4truth

    preacher4truth Active Member

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    :thumbsup:

    Winman is angry, and will stay angry. :laugh:

    That, and he doesn't know the Greek meaning of "if" as in, it means, "forasmuch."

    Hey Winman, go look up the definition of if in the Greek, and study the context leading to Colossians 3:1 and see how "if" there could read "forasmuch" or "since." No need to get twisted as is your norm, just go look for yourself instead of practicing mocking and cynicism, and actually have something to back it up that is tangible.

    I'll give you a hint: Strongs G1487; "ei." :wavey:

    Some versions even render it this way, correctly.
     
  18. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    No it's in there. Note Elijah's use of it on the priests of baal :)
     
  19. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Did you ever read what Elijah said to the prophets of Baal?

    1 Kngs 18:26 And they took the bullock which was given them, and they dressed it, and called on the name of Baal from morning even until noon, saying, O Baal, hear us. But there was no voice, nor any that answered. And they leaped upon the altar which was made.
    27 And it came to pass at noon, that Elijah mocked them, and said, Cry aloud: for he is a god; either he is talking, or he is pursuing, or he is in a journey, or peradventure he sleepeth, and must be awaked.

    There is a place for sarcasm, even for Christians. When you are dealing with people who know they are in error, but persist to insist they are correct, a little sarcasm is good.
    You can argue all day (and I'm sure you will) that the word "if" in John 8:24 means "since", doesn't make it so.
     
  20. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    Sarcastic minds think alike.
     
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