Featured praying = speaking to God

4 Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit.
5 And there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord.
6 And there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all.
7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal.
8 For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;
9 To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit;
10 To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues:
11 But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will.

Paul is not referring to spiritual gifts as used exclusively in the congregation in the above text but is referring to the DISTRIBUTION OF GIFTS IN GENERAL without any regard to LOCATION.

The words "to another.....to another.....to another" are vain repetition according to your claims that God gives tongues to all Christians.

The words "dividing to every man SEVERALLY AS HE WILL." is nonsense according to your claim that God gives tongues to all Christians.


29 Are all apostles? are all prophets? are all teachers? are all workers of miracles?
30 Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?

The Greek text actually contains the Greek word for "no" in every phrase and would read this way:

"not all are apostles; not all are prophets..not all...not all....not all....not all....not all....."

However your claims directly contradict this emphatic denial by Paul that tongues are not given to all Christians.

Paul is talking about the POSSESSION of such gifts not the LOCATION where such gifts are exercised.

Your theories and interpetations are repudiated by Paul in clear and explicit language and in a context of GENERAL distribution and GENERAL possession without any reference to LOCATION.

 

Paul directly quotes Isaiah 28:11-15 as the MATURE understanding for God's purpose of Tongues.

11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
13 But the word of the LORD was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken.
14 ¶ Wherefore hear the word of the LORD, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem.
15 Because ye have said, We have made a covenant with death, and with hell are we at agreement; when the overflowing scourge shall pass through, it shall not come unto us: for we have made lies our refuge, and under falsehood have we hid ourselves:
16 Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste.

It does not take a linguistic genius to see that this is directed toward the jews about the promised rest (v. 12) which is Jesus Christ (v. 16).

It does not take a theologion to see tongues are known languages foreign to the Jews (v. 11)

It does not take brilliance to see these tongues are not directed "to God" but "TO THIS PEOPLE" (v. 11) who are unbelieving Israel/Jews and their leadership who live "in Jerusalem" (v. 14).

It does not take anything other than common sense to see this Biblical design for tongues is OUTSIDE the assembly and thus this explicit Biblical design for tongues has nothing to do with tongues in the sanctuary!

This is the MATURE understanding (1 Cor. 14:20) that Paul provides for the Biblical design and thus proper goal for the use of tongues (1 Cor. 14:21-22).

20 Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.
21 ¶ In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.

Note the words "yet for all that will THEY NOT HEAR ME" and so tongues are not directed to God but to this people from God and their response is that will not believe.

Note the words "wherefore tongues are for a sign" that is their Biblical purpose whether you accept it or not. They are not given for prayer, praise, or for spirituality but they are given to believers "for a sign" and therefore they are not given to them that "believe" as your view demands. They are given as a sign to the UNBELIEVING JEWISH PEOPLE who are very LEARNED in the Scriptures but very lost.

This design is EXTERNAL TO THE CONGREGATION! Hence, the Biblical purpose of tongues is EXTERNAL to the congregation. This design is not "for believers" their prayer life, their spiritual growth but "TO THEM THAT BELIEVE NOT"!

Your whole position is in direct contradiction to the explicit and ONLY BIBLICAL basis given by Paul for the gift of tongues.

 

Isa. 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.

1 Cor. 14:21 ¶ In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.

Note that these are human languagues that God will use to speak to "this people." Hence, tongues are designed by God to speak to people and it is God speaking to them through the gift of tongues instead of Christians speaking to God.

However, current tongue speakers completely REVERSE the word of God on this point and claim that tongues are given to all Christians to speak to God. When 1 Cor. 14:2 is interpreted by its context it is only when believers use tongues inappropriately is God the sole audiance as no one else hearing them can understand the languages.

 

All this debate.......it is well known as in so far as I know....God speaks English with a distinct Australian lilt....I told that to a French retreat master and he was so NOT pleased!!!!:tongue3:

 

First, this question ignores that tongues are described as far as usage in a variety of ways such as "speaketh" "pray" and "singing" and the list could have extended to any other manner of verbalization.

Second, 1 Cor. 14:2 does not mention "pray" or "prayer" but "speaketh" in general regardless of mode.

Third, in the context of "praying" (1 Cor. 14:16-17) it is being condemned by Paul without understanding by both speaker and hearers. Hence, Paul does not commend the use of tongues as a prayer tongue unto God unless comprehension for both speaker and hearer is provided.

 

That is not true and it is rediculous! It does not "blend" them at all but DISTINGUISHES and DIFFERIANIATES between them. He just got through talking about their distribution (vv. 7-11) and he said "to ANOTHER" distinguishing between people (allos versus heteros) not between manifestations to the same (allos) persons! That is your PURE IMAGINATION in direct contradiction the Spirit inspired Word of God.

It says no such thing but says the very opposite. He does not distribute the same manifestation TO EVERY PERSON at various times but he distributes some things to one that he does not another BECAUSE God has equipped each member for their particular task in the body (vv. 11-27). You don't have any idea what you are talking about.

You are the one who needs to pay closer attention to the context. That is my point exactly!!! He is not talking about the SAME PERSON obtaining different manifestations at different times but that these gifts are not distributed to the SAME PERSON but to DIFFERENT Person than the previous one mentioned for different reasons due to their different calling in the body (vv. 11-27).