What has the wording in John 6:44 have to do with the wording in John 6:37???? You are employing debated tactics, such as distraction and redirecting from the proof that your interpretation of John 6:37 is wrong to something we are not even addressing here. Why? Because your interpretation has been proven to be false and you can't respond so you distract, redirect, change the subject.
Give me a break, I was simply using your same argument on you. So, according to you, you are using tactics to distract and redirect because your interpretation has been proven to be false and you can't respond.
This is like arguing with a teenager.
They are NECESSARILY INCLUSIVE of each other as coming is the consequence of both. Being given by the Father necessarily includes being drawn by the Father as "no man can come" whom the Father does not draw and "ALL" those given do in fact come.
They aren't necessarily anything. The scripture simply says that all the Father gives Jesus will come to him, it does not say why this is so.
You are ignoring and trying to distract from the fact that "draweth" is PRESENT TENSE but "shall come" is FUTURE TENSE and grammatically this demands that being given PRECEDES coming regardless of your denials. This is the grammar and you can deny it but it does not change it! You are simply wrong and too committed to irrational dogma to simply admit the grammatical facts.
I am not ignoring anything, Jesus said no man can come to him unless the Father draws him. Jesus did not say all that are drawn will come.
Your denial is both grammatically disproven and logically disproven!
My denial of your view is solid, the scriptures do not say what you are claiming they say.
First, the stated GRAMMACTICAL CAUSE and only stated criteria for coming to Christ is being given by the Father, as being given is the only criteria provided for FUTURE TENSE coming. Hence, the grammatical tenses provide a LOGICAL ORDERED RELATIONSHIP between being given and shall come. This present tense giving of "all" to the Son is ALWAYS EFFECTUAL as none fail to come that are first given and thus coming is the EFFECTUAL consequence of being given and the only CRITERIA for future tense come. So you cannot HONESTLY deny that the grammatical cause for coming is found in only one stated criteria - being given - thus the ONLY stated cause for effectual coming.
You can talk about grammar all you want, the scriptures do not say what you are claiming they say. The scriptures do not say that being given causes a person to come to Jesus. That might possibly be true, but the scriptures are silent on this issue. Likewise, the scriptures do not say all that are drawn will come to Jesus. You can't show it, because it isn't there.
Second, verses 38-39 demands the reason for the Son coming into the world was to effectually secure God's will of purpose for eternal salvation "of all" which the Father "HATH GIVEN" the Son. He did not say the Son was sent into the world to effectually secure God's will of purpose for eternal salvation "of all" that "SHALL COME." Indeed, coming to Christ is omitted completely from verses 38-39 showing that the CAUSE for Christ coming and the CAUSE of "all" coming to Christ and the CAUSE for eternal security of "ALL" of these is due to being "given" not coming. Let this sink in! However, your theory and interpretation would demand the very opposite as you place the cause of salvation on coming rather than being given but Jesus demands the cause for eternal salvation and for him being sent into the world is found in being "given" just as this is also explicitly stated in John 17:2 where coming is completely ommitted and the cause is completely attributed to being given - "as many as the Father hath given" is the only criteria stated and given as the basis to give eternal life.
Yes, we are told Jesus came to do the will of his Father. And we are told that the Father's will is that he not lose those that are given to him. But it doesn't say being given causes a person to come to Jesus, and it doesn't say all that are drawn will come.
You seem to really believe that if you repeat a falsehood ten thousand times, that it will miraculously become truth. Sorry to burst your bubble, but it ain't gonna happen.
No amount of denial or dogma or misintepreted proof texting can reverse this grammatical and expliclty stated cause is beng given for both coming to Christ, for Christ coming into the world and the absolute eternal security "of all" the Father "HATH GIVEN" (note he did not say "of all that shall come but restricts the cause to being given for coming and eternal security).
And no amount of stubborn insistence on your part will make your view become truth.