Hey, don't answer it for little old me.
Many others would like to know your exact position, I'm sure. (As long as you don't answer it, it looks like squirming to me and perhaps others.)
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Poor proof that Christ has a physical body now
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Many others would like to know your exact position, I'm sure. (As long as you don't answer it, it looks like squirming to me and perhaps others.)
But, lest someone else thinks I am squirming:
Christ rose bodily from the grave. He does not have,a physical body now. He once again, per his prayer in John 17, has the same glorious essence he had with Father in eternity past
Next,week I will be in Ecuador and will stay there for a while. And I should have consistent Internet When I don't answer in,a timely fashion now it is because of lack of means, not desire to respond. There has been,an ongoing frustration,for me here … my not responding being misconstrued as being silenced.
Finally!
And you are completely wrong. John 17 says nothing about a "glorious essence," but only about "glory." You added a completely unnecessary word to Christ's wonderful high priestly prayer. In fact, in v. 22 Jesus said He is giving that same glory to His disciples, who were very certainly flesh and blood and therefore human.
prophecy70
Active Member
So if Jesus is 100 percent human, and 100 percent God.
Then why is he only limited in the Human side sense.
Does he not still have a divine side that is not limited?
If he is Physically Limited now, Isn't this giving up divine qualities he possessed before?
Then why is he only limited in the Human side sense.
Does he not still have a divine side that is not limited?
If he is Physically Limited now, Isn't this giving up divine qualities he possessed before?
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prophecy70
Active Member
If a Human is limited, and Jesus Is fully human, is Jesus Limited?
If God is Omnipresent, and Jesus Is Fully God, Is Jesus Omnipresent?
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Because the Bible says so, most obviously in Phil. 2, but also in any other Scripture about the incarnation.
The incarnation of Jesus Christ is non-negotiable. It is absolute truth, held by all Bible-believing churches for almost 2000 years.
It's not a "divine side." Remember: 100% God and 100% man. There is no "this side and that side."
No. The physical limitation voluntarily taken on by Christ cannot limit the eternal God that he is.
Yes and yes.
This question essentially denies the Hypostatic Union of Christ and is therefore heresy and blasphemy.
prophecy70
Active Member
That makes NO sense. How can a question deny anything? The answer is what would confirm or deny it.
prophecy70
Active Member
Explain, how a limited body can be omnipresent.
I am sure it makes no sense to you as you have little to no understanding of the Hypostatic Union. But your question is predicated on the assertion that Christ must "have a divine side" - which is a denial of the Hypostatic Union. "Union" mean "one." He is not part God and part man. He does not have a "God side" and a "man side." He is One single person.
prophecy70
Active Member
SERIOUSLY? Stop Judging me! IM ASKING QUESTIONS. I was "only using an example with the side talk" I realize he is one person. You take everything I say and make it into something its not.
Now, where does it say He disrobed His humanity after He ascended to the Father? Can't seem to find it.
You've come late into this thread. On the first page #10 q.v. I posted:
"The question is repeatedly raised to attempt to prove that for Jesus to come in AD 70 spiritually in accord with his Olivet prophecy would violate his "hypostatic union."
I hope we would all agree that nothing can violate the perfect deity & perfect humanity in the person of the Lord Jesus Christ."
I hope we would all agree that nothing can violate the perfect deity & perfect humanity in the person of the Lord Jesus Christ."
Interesting that those holding to pretierism also deny the Hypostatic union of Christ and physical resurrection, so keep compounding their heresies!
prophecy70
Active Member
Oh my, what a complete twist of words. This is disappointing. Who here denied the Physical Resurrection?
Now, where does it say He disrobed His humanity after He ascended to the Father? Can't seem to find it.
I can't seem to find where Christ limited Himself only to be physical:
You got any idees where the scriptures say He actually 'limited Himself' to be ONLY physical? Did you read post # 53?
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Jesus as man here did experience things as God never could, such as hunger, pain, being physically hurt etc!I can't seem to find where Christ limited Himself only to be physical:
You got any idees where He did this hillbilly?Did you read post # 53?
Full blown preterists do!
Yes. Seriously. We take the finished work and Person of Christ very seriously on the Baptist Board.
I didn't judge you. I judged rightly what you said. 1 Corinthians 2:15 "But he that is spiritual judgeth all things."
Your question presupposed the duality (a form of Manichaeism condemned in 382 AD) of Christ.
You said, "Does he not still have a divine side?" That question presupposes He had a "divine side" to "still have."
Learn about these thing before jumping in way over your head. 2 Timothy 2:15 "Study to show yourself approved unto God, a workman that needs not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."
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