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Monergism vs Synergism

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by thatbrian, Nov 20, 2017.

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  1. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    I didn't say that and nothing I have said should lead anyone to believe I said that. If something must occur after the cross regardless of who does it then it must be the cross+whatever that is. In your case it is the cross+regeneration. It may be the application of what happened on the cross but it still is separate and apart from happening on the cross.

    You have to stop telling people what they are thinking. You just don't know that. I do not know I am wrong in fact I am right about your "untenable" standard in which you are trying to hold to someone else but refuse to hold yourself to it. Trying to tell someone that because they choose (application of the cross) is any different than God regenerates in that it occurs as a separate instance from the cross is just wrong and inconsistent.
     
    #81 Revmitchell, Nov 24, 2017
    Last edited: Nov 24, 2017
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  2. thatbrian

    thatbrian Well-Known Member
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    That's your assumption. John 6:44 begs to differ.

    God's right to our obedience remains the same as it did for Adam; however, we are incapable of it.
     
  3. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    And that is your modus operandi. You say something then refuse to own it.

    What does God's regenerating Grace add to the finished work of Christ on the cross?

    You are the one who claims regeneration is the result of something you do.
     
  4. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    Please quote me verbatim or apologize for your false accusation.
     
  5. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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  6. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    What in the world is wrong with you? That's not what I was talking about. You accused me of saying regeneration is not how Christ applies the work of the cross. Why does that have to be explained?

    I never said regeneration is not how Christ applies the work of the cross, so your accusation is false and intentionally so.

    I did catch you in a severe inconsistency since you yourself believe the cross+regeneration is necessary for salvation. In other words to you the cross is not enough.
     
  7. Saved-By-Grace

    Saved-By-Grace Well-Known Member

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    So, you are saying that God commands that we do something, that He know we are not capable of? Where do you guys get your "theology" from?
     
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  8. Saved-By-Grace

    Saved-By-Grace Well-Known Member

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    I fear that because of a "theological block", there are some who cannot grasp what the Bible actually teaches. The sinner is indeed spiritually "dead", but this is in their relation to God, this has been broken because of sin. It is not speaking of being "dead" so that they are incapable of responding to the "convicting" power of the Holy Spirit, Who is said to "convict the WORLD of sin" (John 16:8). You have thus far ignored a response to what I showed from Jesus' own words in John 5:25, which is very clear to those who want to see, that the lost spiritual "dead" and and do hear the Gospel for their salvation. Please deal with this.
     
  9. Saved-By-Grace

    Saved-By-Grace Well-Known Member

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    That is because it is easier for the blind to follow the blind!
     
  10. thatbrian

    thatbrian Well-Known Member
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    Have you obeyed God's law? Do you know anyone who has obeyed God's law? Does God command obedience to His law? Why did Christ die, if a man is capable of obedience to God's law? Again, where is this person who obeys God's law? If you think that you have obeyed His law (only perfection will do) why are you a Christian?

    God commands obedience to His perfect law, and yes, He knows that no man is capable of that. Unless you are not a sinner, you believe the same.
     
  11. Saved-By-Grace

    Saved-By-Grace Well-Known Member

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    Your reply completely misses what the text in Acts actually says! God rightly commands that every human being, who are all lost in their sins, repent of these sins and fully trust in Jesus Christ for their salvation. God commands this, because it is a requirement for ALL sinners to get their sins forgiven. the fact that God "commands all men everywhere" to do this, shows beyond any doubt, that the entire human race CAN indeed repent, which is what God the Holy Spirit ensures by His conviction of sin (John 16). Yes, not everyone will repent, because not everyone is interested in what God has said. But this does not mean that they CANNOT, but that they WILL NOT! As Jesus says in John chapter 5, "You search the Scriptures, for in them you think you have eternal life; and these are they which testify of Me. But you are not willing to come to Me that you may have life" (ver.39-40). Not as some would have us believe, "you cannot will to come", as though their "free will" has been restrained by God, but, "you are not willing", which clearly shows that they COULD will to, but CHOOSE not to!
     
  12. thatbrian

    thatbrian Well-Known Member
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    Did God author the 10 Commandments? How about the Sermon on the Mount? Are they commands or suggestions? Have you, or anyone you know, obeyed these laws?

    Again, Jesus Himself disputes your statement. He said this: No one can come to me, unless the Father who sent me makes them want to come. But if they do come, I will raise them to life on the last day. (John 6:44)

    Noone is willing to come to Christ. The word "draw" in John 6:44, mean to drag. It's the word used when describing getting water from a well. One takes the water from the well.

     
  13. Saved-By-Grace

    Saved-By-Grace Well-Known Member

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    Revelation 22:17

    "And the Spirit and the bride say, “Come!” And let him who hears say, “Come!” And let him who thirsts come. Whoever desires, let him take the water of life freely"

    Acts 2:21

    "Everyone, whoever calls on the name of the Lord Shall be saved" (so the force of the Greek text)

    An open invitation to ALL by God Almighty! AMEN!

    By the way, why do the Calvinists and Reformed have this opposition to ALL sinners being saved? God Himself says in Ezekiel that He does not take any pleasure (desire) that the wicked should perish, and that they repent and be saved, rather than lost in hell. This is the theme of the whole Bible. And yet there are some who actually oppose God on this very issue. I believe that the Prophet Jonah was the first "Calvinist", as he also strongly opposed what God wanted to do, and did in saving 1000's of lost souls, who are not even part of the Jewish "elect"!
     
  14. thatbrian

    thatbrian Well-Known Member
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    You didn't answer my questions. Why is that?
     
  15. Saved-By-Grace

    Saved-By-Grace Well-Known Member

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    Every person that ever gets saved, must first be under the conviction of the Holy Spirit, that they are lost sinners and hell-bound, and that they need to get their souls saved, and this salvation is only to be found in the Lord Jesus Christ. No person can ever get converted on their own. No one is capable of being saved without the Holy Spirit first "drawing" them to the Lord Jesus Christ. However, it is plain in Scripture that the Gospel Message has the "power of God that leads to salvation" (Romans 1:16), and they that "repent" of their sins will indeed be saved (Luke 13:1-5)

    I have a book by a Loraine Boettner, Studies in Theology, where he also has been confused by what he says. He says in one place, "The Gospel is, nevertheless, to be offered to all men, with the assurance that it is exactly adapted to the needs of all men, and that God has decreed that all who place their faith in Christ shall be saved by Him. No man is lost because of any deficiency in the objective atonement, or because God has placed any barrier in His way, but only because of subjective difficulties, specifically, because because of his own evil disposition and his freely exercised wicked will will prevent his believing and accepting that atonement" (pages 323-324). Now, has God decreed the "ALL" who place their faith in Jesus, as "elect", or "all without exception"? If the former, then Dr Boettner's argument is faulty. Then he goes on to say, that "no man is lost", because of God "placing any barrier in his way", which again can only refer to the "non-elect", but, this reasoning is faulty, as the "barrier" that God has placed, according to Calvinism, is LIMITED ATONEMENT. IF, as this teaches, that Jesus Christ ONLY died for SOME, then this DOES become a "barrier" to those for whom He did not die. Dr Boettner, then accuses the person who does not accept Jesus, of having a "evil disposition" and "freely exercised wicked will", which again contradicts "Calvinism", which teaches that man does NOT have a "free will", to accept or reject the Gospel of Salvation, as their "fate" has already been predetermined.
     
  16. thatbrian

    thatbrian Well-Known Member
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    It's difficult to have a fruitful conversation if you jump around. Your initial complaint was regarding God commanding what He knows we cannot accomplish. Have you conceded that point, or would you like to answer my last post addressing that issue?

    If you now agree that God does command what He knows can't be achieved, then we can move forward to your next objection to God's sovereignty.
     
  17. Saved-By-Grace

    Saved-By-Grace Well-Known Member

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    can you firstly explain, how can God command that we do something, knowing full well that it is something that we cannot do? It is a completely different matter, if God commanded that we did something, but Himself did not know whether it were possible or not, that we do it? God commands it, because this is the only way a sinner can get saved, and avoid going eternally to hell. God commands it, because He has made sure that the entire human race is indeed capable of repenting and believing, because this is how He has made human beings. Your reasoning makes God out to be someone who really does not know what He is doing, by making demands of fallen sinners, whom He knows cannot comply! This surely makes God unjust!
     
  18. thatbrian

    thatbrian Well-Known Member
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    I've been doing just that. Read back. God gave the 10 commandments, did He not? Christ summed up the commands of God in the Great Comand:
    Matthew 22:37–40

    [37] And he said to him, “You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind. [38] This is the great and first commandment. [39] And a second is like it: You shall love your neighbor as yourself. [40] On these two commandments depend all the Law and the Prophets.” (ESV)

    Now, if you, or anyone you know, has obeyed these commands, then you have an argument. If not, then we know that God commands what men are incapable of.

    What needs to be understood here is the reason God gave the law in the first place. The apostle Paul gives us the reason. He says: "Why then the law? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made. . ."

    God is not unjust in His commands. We are sinful. It's not Him. It's us. In other words, God will not lower the bar because we are sinners. He will not permit murder because men are murderers. He will not say it's Okay to commit adultery because men are adulterers. His law is perfect. We are not perfect, and that is the point. The law reveals our imperfection. It demonstrates our weakness and need for Christ.

    Now, do you agree that God commands what He knows men are incapable of, or not?
     
  19. thatbrian

    thatbrian Well-Known Member
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    "the commandments are not given inappropriately or pointlessly; but in order that through them the proud, blind man may learn the plague of his impotence, should he try to do as he is commanded." Martin Luther - The Bondage of the Will pg. 160

    "...'if thou art willing' is a verb in the subjunctive mood, which asserts nothing...a conditional statement asserts nothing indicatively." "if thou art willing", "if thou hear", "if thou do" declare, not man's ability, but his duty. pg 157
     
  20. Reformed

    Reformed Well-Known Member
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    You called TCassidy arrogant and then you type this sentence. This statement of your is classic arrogance. You have 37 total posts (at last count) and you elevate yourself as an authority? By your prose and the substance of your theological argument you prove that you have a lot to learn.

    Of course, it has been broken because of sin. It's not because of his righteousness.

    Really? I made my exegetical case. Are you capable of doing that? The convicting power of the Holy Spirit is John 16 has nothing to do with the spiritual condition of man. Matthew Henry writes:

    The Spirit, by the word and conscience, is a reprover; ministers are reprovers by office, and by them the Spirit reproves.

    Henry, M. (1994). Matthew Henry’s commentary on the whole Bible: complete and unabridged in one volume (p. 2023). Peabody: Hendrickson.

    One role of the Holy Spirit was to work through the Apostles in bringing a legal indictment against sin and those who are in their sins (note that Jesus was talking to the Apostles about what was to follow after His ascension). The Apostles would possess the legal right to act as Christ's representatives on earth and the Holy Spirit would be their bona fide.


    Ignored it? Please. I was waiting for your response to the exegesis I provided. How are the spiritually dead in John 5:25 able to know the convicting work of the Holy Spirit while they are spiritually dead? Because it is the Holy Spirit doing the convicting. I point you back to my previous posts, which I know you have exhaustively dissected. I am not going to type of them again because I'm convinced I'm talking to a brick.

    Tom, have fun with this guy.
     
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