John 3:16

Perhaps you need to examine both the time line and the statements of James Arminius.

Doing so, you would better draw some much clearer distinctions as to what James Arminius actually taught (for he far more enjoyed teaching than engaging in disputation) in comparison to what was later ascribed to him.

The same is actually true for John Calvin.

John Calvin was not a "hyper-calvinist."

What Arminius held was not the general "freedom of the will" such as Pelagius held, but the will was a fallen will that without God's direct intervention, there was no salvation to be considered, that salvation was "foolish" and "ignorance." Because was NO freedom of the will innate in fallen man for that person to ever seek God, but rather the opposite such a will to actually despise, hide, turn aside from the authority of God, then the truth of "no man seeks God" as the Scripture states is the default condition of all fallen.

Wesley took it a step further by instigating the un-scriptural scheme of "prevenient" or "preceding" grace, in which, the fallen will was in some manner lifted or given a half-life so the human could respond to the appeal. No such situation is found anywhere in Scriptures, nor is such a grace expressed in the Scriptures.

The current Baptist thinking still uses "prevenient grace" thinking whether they be Arminian based or Calvinistic based. It is NOT found in Scripture, or even hinted in Scripture that such a grace is extended to anyone.

 

Good, this is what BOTH Calvin and Arminius taught.

There is no innate capacity natural in any lost. Such thinking is in violation of the statements of Romans 10.

Romans 10 shares WHY some hear and some do not.

It is not some innate capacity given to all.

Throughout the gospels the outward ears capacity was not the hearing needed. Rather, that gift given as indicated by the phrase "those who have ears to hear...."

Such ears WILL respond and that person who hears WILL be saved, just as Hebrews 4 states:
2For indeed we have had good news preached to us, just as they also; but the word they heard did not profit them, because it was not united by faith in those who heard.

Now, DO NOT give into the thinking that this is some human generated faith. It is not. NOTHING of human effort goes into salvation, it is totally of God or not at all of God.

I can agree with some of this, but not all.

Peter expressed the purpose of Christ in this statement: (1 Peter 3)
18For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit;

The "us" is not all men everywhere of their own innate ability. It is believers.

The ECF very much taught the doctrines of grace EXCEPT for the limited atonement linking blood to salvation.

Rather, they linked the limit to the unmerited favor of God to endow faith that He be glorified in the working of the salvation and what responsibility He has prepared for those whom He chooses. (Ephesians 2:8-10)

 

Actually, it is.

The word "eklektos" (elect, elected ones) is used in such passages as:

Colossians 3:12 "12So, as those who have been chosen of God, holy and beloved, put on a heart of compassion, kindness, humility, gentleness and patience;..."
Titus 1:1 "1Paul, a bond-servant of God and an apostle of Jesus Christ, for the faith of those chosen of God and the knowledge of the truth which is according to godliness,
Ephesians 1: "3Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, 4just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. In love 5He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will, 6to the praise of the glory of His grace, which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved.​

Again, you are attempting to hold God to a human standard of what is fair or right in contrast to what you perceive as unfair or not right. That isn't Scriptural, but a human avoidance in desperate desire to deny the reality.

Paul answers this claim made by you:

Romans 9: 19You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” 20On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? 21Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use?​

The writer of Hebrews states that "...Jesus, the author and perfecter of faith..."

And Paul writes in Romans 8:

28And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose. 29For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brethren; 30and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified.​

So, yes, certainly predestination is taught in the Scriptures.

 

Perhaps then you need to be more specific and point out the teaching and exactly what is not conformed to Scriptures.

That is purely God's business.

A better question might be why would God ever determine that a wretched infidel such as me was worthy of His attention!

I am totally unworthy of any of God's attention.

There is no "condition" of merit or exercise of human ability in which I could ever attain God's attention as being righteous.

He redeemed me despite my own inclinations, desires, and life choices.

As a result, "All that I am, or ever hope to be, I owe it all to Him (you)" Written by Andre Crouch and found in "My Tribute."

Why not?

Universal atonement (taking that you mean that the shed blood was for every human that ever lived) is a separate but necessary part of salvation. (Without the shedding of blood....)

Election is based solely upon the Sovereign will of the Father. He does that choosing of His own purpose, timing, and needs, and not upon our own.

NO, the Bible teaches this, not some system.

The system is a human scheme that attempts (imperfectly so, imo) to group correlate various themes.



[/QUOTE]
Paul says , "That is, in Christ, God was reconciling the world to Himself" (2 Cor, 5:19), which includes every human being. If this were just the elect, who would come to God, as they were so disposed to, then why would Paul go on to say, "Therefore, we are ambassadors for Christ, certain that God is appealing through us. We plead on Christ’s behalf, “Be reconciled to God" (v.20)? Why does God need to "plead" with the elect, as if they would not want to come to Him? It can only be understood when including EVERYONE in the world, because we know that many are not interested in God![/QUOTE]

Why do you think God "pleads" with anyone?

Christ gave a great illustration of a single sheep, who sought whom?
Christ gave the great parable of the rebellious son, who longed for whom?
Christ states that the gospel (word of God) is spread indiscriminately on the ground, why is only one harvested?

Each of these illustrate that God (Christ) is not "pleading" but active in performing the task of salvation specific to each person.

Why does this present a conflict in your mind?

Is it possible to find some example of salvation in the NT that was not purposeful by the power and instigation of God?.

 

I was going to mention that Augustine was a papist, and I personally do not hold him in very high regard.

But as with the manner of all theologians, he wrote, and some was inaccurate some was accurate. At times, he as all theologians modified what was originally written or clarify it with further writings.

It is ignorant to not read the writings of very good theologians, but also it is ignorant to embrace any writing in the stead of or irregardless of Scripture truth.

 

So you use no other "helps?"