Is Christianity Accessible to All People?

1. No- Romans 10:17 answers this: So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.

2. No one- Romans 10:18 answers this: But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world.

 

First, I am responding only to the OP, I did not read the follow-on posts.

1) Can someone believe in Jesus if he has never head of Jesus? Nope
2) How many people have lived and died without ever hearing the gospel of Jesus? Unknown, but probably millions.

The apparent implication, is that salvation is not "available" to all those unable to hear either because the gospel was never presented to them or they had been hardened such that they could not understand. And I would say that premise is true. They therefore face perfect justice in the afterlife.

 

Or God found the way to get them the message of Jesus while alive, somehow/someway!

 

You are correct!

 

You just won the “Rippon Award”

 

I have enjoyed the interaction on this thread today--very much so!

Perhaps this follow-up question should be a new thread. If so, please make it so. Here it is: Does God have to make it accessible to all or is He free to "veil" it from some?

The reason I ask is that many of the non-reformed I've interacted with over the years reply simply: It isn't fair if God doesn't make it available to all.

Blessings,

The Archangel

 

Romans 1:19-21 Tells use that God has made himself accessible to all. Verse 20 shows that there is no excuse and verse 21 demonstrates that God can and will harden their heart.

 

Many non-reformed apply the Old Testament with great misunderstanding (and the New, but I'm seeking to make a point about the Old) as if the promises therein were universal (ie. to the Philistines, the Amorites, etc.). It is easily forgotten that Israel had a special relationship with God, that they were the recipients of His special revelation. So, they already knew God because He revealed Himself to them.

The Archangel

 

Assertions without citations are like obfuscation without truth.

 

Oh, you mean like how Reformed and Calvinists apply the promises of Ezekiel 36, a passage about the renewal of the nation of Israel, as if they were universal to people nowadays and change the subject to regeneration of the sinners heart?

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Darn autocorrect! We will battle again!

 

Not at all...

Because believers in Christ belong to Abraham, just as Israel did. Paul is quite clear in Galatians when he writes:

And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's offspring, heirs according to promise. (Galatians 3:29 ESV)
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And, you've misunderstood my point. Israel is not ignorant of who God is and what He demands, since He has told them by revealing Himself to them. The disconnect comes not from the application of the Old Testament, including Ezekiel, to believers in Christ, but from the application of the Old Testament promises to people outside of the revelation of God. God works with Israel in one way and that way is extended to believers in Christ. Jesus Himself is quite clear on this, too, as He references the Old Testament and applies it to those who believe in Him. Of course, Paul, Peter, and the rest of the apostles do the same thing and even make that application applicable to both Jews and Gentiles.

Blessings,

The Archangel

 

And you are now saying that nobody was saved prior to Jesus. See. I can put nonsense in your mouth too.

Of course the Jews would not have known Him as "Jesus", but simply as the Messiah. The messiah is who the Jews had faith in.

 

I always thought it was like Memphis myself. Except Paul used the Good ol' King James Bible.

 

Yes. This is especially true when you consider the blessings and curses of Deuteronomy 28. There is a pre-existing covenant relationship between Israel and God, who initiate the relationship by revealing Himself to them.

The Archangel


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