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Is Christianity Accessible to All People?

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Yabruf

New Member
In a recently-closed thread, @SheepWhisperer asked, "If someone cannot possibly access something that is "available", how then is it "available" to save them?"

I would like to ask a similar question in two parts: 1) Can someone believe in Jesus if he has never heard of Jesus? 2) How many people have lived and died without ever hearing the gospel of Jesus?

Any and all Free-Willies, please respond. Looking forward to it.

1. No- Romans 10:17 answers this: So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.

2. No one- Romans 10:18 answers this: But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
In a recently-closed thread, @SheepWhisperer asked, "If someone cannot possibly access something that is "available", how then is it "available" to save them?"
I would like to ask a similar question in two parts: 1) Can someone believe in Jesus if he has never heard of Jesus? 2) How many people have lived and died without ever hearing the gospel of Jesus?
Any and all [edit by Van - non-Cals] please respond. Looking forward to it.

First, I am responding only to the OP, I did not read the follow-on posts.

1) Can someone believe in Jesus if he has never head of Jesus? Nope
2) How many people have lived and died without ever hearing the gospel of Jesus? Unknown, but probably millions.

The apparent implication, is that salvation is not "available" to all those unable to hear either because the gospel was never presented to them or they had been hardened such that they could not understand. And I would say that premise is true. They therefore face perfect justice in the afterlife.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
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First, I am responding only to the OP, I did not read the follow-on posts.

1) Can someone believe in Jesus if he has never head of Jesus? Nope
2) How many people have lived and died without ever hearing the gospel of Jesus? Unknown, but probably millions.

The apparent implication, is that salvation is not "available" to all those unable to hear either because the gospel was never presented to them or they had been hardened such that they could not understand. And I would say that premise is true. They therefore face perfect justice in the afterlife.
Or God found the way to get them the message of Jesus while alive, somehow/someway!
 

thatbrian

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
1. No- Romans 10:17 answers this: So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.

2. No one- Romans 10:18 answers this: But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world.

I think that you are reading Romans 10:18 a bible literalisticly.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
I have enjoyed the interaction on this thread today--very much so!

Perhaps this follow-up question should be a new thread. If so, please make it so. Here it is: Does God have to make it accessible to all or is He free to "veil" it from some?

The reason I ask is that many of the non-reformed I've interacted with over the years reply simply: It isn't fair if God doesn't make it available to all.

Blessings,

The Archangel
 

Yabruf

New Member
I have enjoyed the interaction on this thread today--very much so!

Perhaps this follow-up question should be a new thread. If so, please make it so. Here it is: Does God have to make it accessible to all or is He free to "veil" it from some?

The reason I ask is that many of the non-reformed I've interacted with over the years reply simply: It isn't fair if God doesn't make it available to all.

Blessings,

The Archangel

Romans 1:19-21 Tells use that God has made himself accessible to all. Verse 20 shows that there is no excuse and verse 21 demonstrates that God can and will harden their heart.

 

thatbrian

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I have enjoyed the interaction on this thread today--very much so!

Perhaps this follow-up question should be a new thread. If so, please make it so. Here it is: Does God have to make it accessible to all or is He free to "veil" it from some?

The reason I ask is that many of the non-reformed I've interacted with over the years reply simply: It isn't fair if God doesn't make it available to all.

Blessings,

The Archangel

Most non-Cals speak as if the entire population of the Earth for the past 2,000 years has lived in an environment very similar to Nashville, TN, with TV evangelists, and church on every corner, Bibles on every bookshelf and Christian neighbors on every side.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
Most non-Cals speak as if the entire population of the Earth for the past 2,000 years has lived in an environment very similar to Nashville, TN, with TV evangelists, and church on every corner, Bibles on every bookshelf and Christian neighbors on every side.

Many non-reformed apply the Old Testament with great misunderstanding (and the New, but I'm seeking to make a point about the Old) as if the promises therein were universal (ie. to the Philistines, the Amorites, etc.). It is easily forgotten that Israel had a special relationship with God, that they were the recipients of His special revelation. So, they already knew God because He revealed Himself to them.

The Archangel
 

InTheLight

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Many non-reformed apply the Old Testament with great misunderstanding (and the New, but I'm seeking to make a point about the Old) as if the promises therein were universal (ie. to the Philistines, the Amorites, etc.). It is easily forgotten that Israel had a special relationship with God, that they were the recipients of His special revelation. So, they already knew God because He revealed Himself to them.

The Archangel

Oh, you mean like how Reformed and Calvinists apply the promises of Ezekiel 36, a passage about the renewal of the nation of Israel, as if they were universal to people nowadays and change the subject to regeneration of the sinners heart?

Sent from my Nexus 7 using Tapatalk
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
Oh, you mean like how Reformed and Calvinists apply the promises of Ezekiel 36, a passage about the renewal of the nation of Israel, as if they were universal to people nowadays and change the subject to regeneration of the sinners heart?

Sent from my Nexus 7 using Tapatalk

Not at all...

Because believers in Christ belong to Abraham, just as Israel did. Paul is quite clear in Galatians when he writes:

And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's offspring, heirs according to promise. (Galatians 3:29 ESV)
And, you've misunderstood my point. Israel is not ignorant of who God is and what He demands, since He has told them by revealing Himself to them. The disconnect comes not from the application of the Old Testament, including Ezekiel, to believers in Christ, but from the application of the Old Testament promises to people outside of the revelation of God. God works with Israel in one way and that way is extended to believers in Christ. Jesus Himself is quite clear on this, too, as He references the Old Testament and applies it to those who believe in Him. Of course, Paul, Peter, and the rest of the apostles do the same thing and even make that application applicable to both Jews and Gentiles.

Blessings,

The Archangel
 

delizzle

Active Member
So, now you are saying that salvation comes by faith and works. Okay, but are you a Protestant or a Roman Catholic? I don't like debating Roman Catholics.

You are also asserting that people who have not heard the gospel or the name of Jesus have faith in Him, so I wonder why it is that Jesus gave the Great Commission to His disciples.
And you are now saying that nobody was saved prior to Jesus. See. I can put nonsense in your mouth too.

Of course the Jews would not have known Him as "Jesus", but simply as the Messiah. The messiah is who the Jews had faith in.
 
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delizzle

Active Member
Most non-Cals speak as if the entire population of the Earth for the past 2,000 years has lived in an environment very similar to Nashville, TN, with TV evangelists, and church on every corner, Bibles on every bookshelf and Christian neighbors on every side.

I always thought it was like Memphis myself. Except Paul used the Good ol' King James Bible.
 

thatbrian

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Many non-reformed apply the Old Testament with great misunderstanding (and the New, but I'm seeking to make a point about the Old) as if the promises therein were universal (ie. to the Philistines, the Amorites, etc.). It is easily forgotten that Israel had a special relationship with God, that they were the recipients of His special revelation. So, they already knew God because He revealed Himself to them.

The Archangel

Yes. For example: "If my people. . .and I will heal their land".
 

thatbrian

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
And you are now saying that nobody was saved prior to Jesus. See. I can put nonsense in your mouth too.

Of course the Jews would not have known Him as "Jesus", but simply as the Messiah. The messiah is who the Jews had faith in.

This is a quote from you:

They are saved because they obeyed the Law with faith in the coming Messiah

If that does not equal faith + works = salvation, please tell us how.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
Yes. For example: "If my people. . .and I will heal their land".

Yes. This is especially true when you consider the blessings and curses of Deuteronomy 28. There is a pre-existing covenant relationship between Israel and God, who initiate the relationship by revealing Himself to them.

The Archangel


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