Birth Before Belief

So, tell us....if God gifts us with faith, why does he then count that faith as righteousness? I mean, if he gave it to us, certainly he doesn't need to keep a tally of what it's supposed to do for us...

 

Because it is not the law God gave and is specifically speaking of in Romans.

My question for you is why is God's grace (the gospel) not sufficient to save? Why do you call faith a gift that is only given to a few when God said that faith comes from hearing the gospel and is open to everyone?

 

If you turn from meeting conditions you think saved you (self-righteousness) and look beyond yourself and trust in Christ's righteousness instead of your own, God will consider your faith as righteousness. But if you continue having faith in your faith, as being your grounds of acceptance with God, you do not have biblical faith. You have intellectual assent.

 

Then I am good I do not believe I have any self righteousness that saved me. Are you going to answer my question?

Why is God's grace (the gospel) not sufficient to save? Why do you call faith a gift that is only given to a few when God said that faith comes from hearing the gospel and is open to everyone?

 

The gospel is not open to everyone. All of the nations and most of Israel perished never hearing it. And twice in Acts the Holy Ghost forbade preaching to Asia for a time. The Gospel is not a system of works for the self-righteous, it announces to all who believe in Christ, they have eternal life. Eternal life has no beginning or end. They were always saved in the mind of God.

 

Apart from the new birth, people reject the gospel, just as the Pharisees did.

 

Please show me this in scripture.

 

If you regard the audience, Peter speaks to believers.

 

“Now the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him; and he cannot know them, because they are spiritually judged.” (1 Corinthians 2:14)

 

Why is God's grace (the gospel) not sufficient to save?

 

The context here is not the lost man vs. the saved man, it is Godly wisdom vs. worldly wisdom. The context is determined by the use of "wisdom" in verse 6 and 13. Regenerated man is not spoken of here.

 

But is says the things of God (gospel etc.) are spiritually discerned. Consider Peter: “He said to them, “But who do you say that I am?” Simon Peter answered, “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” And Jesus answered him, “You are blessed, Simon son of Jonah, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but my Father in heaven!” (Matthew 16:15–17)

 

The question is it God's intent to save all sinners though?

 

You have it backwards, the gospel is what gives the spiritual discernment for it is the power of God to salvation. The grace, the power, the provision for understanding, the provision for faith is found in the gospel. You find the gospel (God's word) insufficient for salvation. Based on scripture I find God's word sufficient for salvation.

 

Why is God's grace (the gospel) not sufficient to save?

 

God has to first regenerate the sinner, then the Gospel can make sense to them!

 

It is, but not intended by God to save all!

 

That is not what scripture says. Scripture says that scripture is sufficient to give faith. Romans 1:16