Romans 5:12-19 and the source of sin and death in humanity

You are still skirting and refusing to directly answer my question. If Adam was created in a state of harmatia which the Bible never defines as "good" but always condemns as evil then how could God claim he created Adam "good." Harmatia by biblical definition is transgression of law. You are attempting to redefine harmatia without a shed of Biblical support. Coming short of the glory of God is the basis for condemnation in Scripture in every instance but you are READING INTO the pre-fallen state a harmatia condition that you are attempting to define as something other than evil and something other than violation of God's law.

So again, what harmatia (transgression of God's law which = coming short of the glory of God) existed prior to the fall? What harmatia (transgression of God's law which is equal to coming short of the glory of God) occurred prior to coming out of the womb by man?

Please dont respond with non-Biblical illustrations as they are worthless. Show me in scripture where harmatia is EVER considered "good" and God created man "good" and in an "upright" condition from which he fell when he violated God's tree law.

 

But you are attempting to defend his prefallen state as harmatia which is the direct product of God's creation and is "good." "Good" includes the moral condition of volitional rational creatures as well as the non-moral state of animate and animal creation. It is all inclusive as nothing from God's hands can be evil but harmatia is ALWAYS and in EVERY instance in creature regarded as evil and just grounds for condemnation.

So again, what harmatia occurred in prefallen Adam or post Adamic man that they can be described as harmatia before committing any acts of disobedience?

 

But you are claming "good" is inclusive of harmatia when not a single use of harmatia defines or describes it as "good". You are claiming Adam was "harmatia" prior to eating the singular act of disobedience Paul refers to in Romans 5:12.

So again, I ask for evidence that harmatia existed prior to the one act of disobedience by Adam or any acts of disobedience by us?

 

Why not stop avoiding the direct questions and directly answer them as I have repeated them now for at least four different times and you never directly address the questions, never directly address the conclusions of your arguments.

Again, show us harmatia existed prior to the one act of disobedence by Adam that Paul refers to repeated in Romans 5:12-19. Show us harmatia is synonmous with "good" anywhere in scripture. Show us where harmatia is not transgression of the law of God. Please don't continue making unsubstantiated assertions but give evidence.

 

Why should I answer any of your questions, especially questions that change the subject and divert from the questions when you continue to refuse to address directly and refuse to offer proof for your unsubstantiated repeated assertions that harmatia is harmonious with "good."

 

That is like asking how could Adam sin without a sin nature. Adam not Eve stood as the representative of mankind and the sin nature was transferred through Adam not Eve. this is precisely why Christ did not have a MALE seed but was produced of the female seed because the female does not pass on the sin nature even though she has a sin nature.

However, why don't you attempt to answer the questions I have repeated over and over and no one has dared to attempt to answer.

 

Sorry, jon and I were going back and forth and I failed to see it was you. my apologies.

As you can see, I cannot get jon to give a direct answer or to offer any evidence for his assertions to my questions.

 

Gotta leave and go to town. Be back later on today.