What transgression shows any man comes up short of God's command prior to the transgression itself?
It is an assumption that Adam's pre-sin state (his nature) was any different from his post sin state (nature). Adam's nature (that he possessed desires of the flesh) were evident in the temptation. Adam gave into temptation and sinned. This had consequences.
But sin then is sin now. Adam disobeyed God with the same nature he had when created. No scripture presents Adam as dying spiritually in order to sin. The idea it was possible for Adam to remain sineless is hypothetical (and a theory I do not hold).
You are still skirting and refusing to directly answer my question. If Adam was created in a state of harmatia which the Bible never defines as "good" but always condemns as evil then how could God claim he created Adam "good." Harmatia by biblical definition is transgression of law. You are attempting to redefine harmatia without a shed of Biblical support. Coming short of the glory of God is the basis for condemnation in Scripture in every instance but you are READING INTO the pre-fallen state a harmatia condition that you are attempting to define as something other than evil and something other than violation of God's law.
So again, what harmatia (transgression of God's law which = coming short of the glory of God) existed prior to the fall? What harmatia (transgression of God's law which is equal to coming short of the glory of God) occurred prior to coming out of the womb by man?
Please dont respond with non-Biblical illustrations as they are worthless. Show me in scripture where harmatia is EVER considered "good" and God created man "good" and in an "upright" condition from which he fell when he violated God's tree law.