Supposedly "KJV Only" Refuted At This Link

I believe you are allowing other people's prejudices to keep you from relying on Him in proving or disproving their ant-KJV claims. You should prove everything by Him. You will be facing Him one day & all the people of anti-KJVOnlyism is not going to be able to defend you for following the crowd.

2 Corinthians 5:9 Wherefore we labour, that, whether present or absent, we may be accepted of him. 10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad. 11 Knowing therefore the terror of the Lord, we persuade men; but we are made manifest unto God; and I trust also are made manifest in your consciences.

I do not know all that KJVOnlyism represent but I am called to be a disciple of Jesus Christ, trusting Him to be my personal Good Shepherd to help me to follow Him, even discerning which Bible version keeps His words that proves they loved Him;

John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him. 24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me. KJV

John 15:20 Remember the word that I said unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also. KJV

I cannot prove that for you. He has done it for me. Do you trust Jesus Christ as your personal Good Shepherd to do that for you?

 

By your example of Easter is why you are in error. Proof?

Passover is a specific day which is followed by the 7 days of the unleavened bread.

Acts 12:1Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. 2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. 3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) 4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. 5 Peter therefore was kept in prison: .......KJV

Now some KJVers try to explain that Herod was a heathen & not a Jew, but over 5o KJV translators & divided into 8 groups, all checked each others' work within that group & their works were checked by the other groups. The origin of the word from which Easter was derived from as also meaning passover, was not Hebrew origin nor Greek origin. but Chaldee origin. It was a foreign word that associated the 7 days of unleavened bread with the Passover even though that was not the Passover day itself. To avoid the confusion of how the Greek had adapted that word to mean passover also, because Passover had come & gone when it is the 7 days of the unleavened bread that is what Herod was waiting for to be over with. Easter was applied as meant by the Chaldee origin as referring to Passover as associated with it but not the Passover day since it was to be after the 7 days of the unleavened bread.

Some modern Jews today associated the 7 days of unleavened bread as the Passover but scripture still separates the two events as maintained by other Jews. So I will stick with what the Bible says about the Passover day & Easter is just a foreign term used to associated the festival of the unleavened bread with the day of Passover, but yet not the Passover day itself.

In other words, Easter is not a term used as today in referring to the holiday called Easter nor to the pagan Easter. That term Easter is used in the Bible by associating the 7 days of the unleavened bread festivities with the day of the Passover.

If you cannot appreciate the KJV translators for clarity for how Easter is meant to be used as of the Chaldee origin, oh well.

I see you are avoiding the Romans 8:26 vs John 16:13 reproof for why I rely on the KJV for keeping the faith which is the good fight. Easter does nothing to to cause anyone to go astray other than to get believers to rely on other Bibles that actually support heresy.

 

NAS & ESV brought heresy by testifying a lie that the Holy Spirit can utter groans when making intercessions in Romans 8:26 when John 16:13 says He cannot. The KJV & the NKJV a few other Bibles has kept the truth in His words in that the Holy Spirit cannot even utter His own groanings. Compare at this link;

Romans 8:26-27;John 16:13 KJV;NASB;ESV;NKJV - Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our - Bible Gateway

Modern tongue speakers believe tongues can be used for private use & it is often gained by a spirit coming over them alter in life which they assume was the Holy Spirit, but it was the spirit of the antichrist that John warned them abut in 1 John 4:1-6 as they will speak the same supernatural tongue the world speaks in as gibberish nonsense. These events seduces believers in chasing after them to receive another spirit by that sign of tongue ( Matthew 12:39 & 1 Timothy 4:1-2 & 1 Corinthians 14:20-22 & 1 Corinthians 14:32-33 )

Where the NKJV fails with the NASB & ESV is in 1 Corinthians 1:18 where "are being saved" is used by believers that err into thinking they are not saved yet but in the process of being saved whereas the KJV testifies they are saved.

1 Corinthians 1:18-21 KJV;NASB;ESV;NKJV - For the preaching of the cross is to - Bible Gateway

That is why I prefer the KJV for the meat of His words whereas the Bible versions you refer to sow doubts in His words for why it is hard to correct believers that have gone astray in most modern bible versions. Granted, it is still on God to cause the increase in sing the KJV, but He has confirmed the KJV as the Bible that loved Him to keep His words so we can discern good & evil by His words.

 

Address how Romans 8:26 is contrary to John 16:13 in most modern bibles as sowing doubts in His words for believers to think the Holy Spirit can utter groans from Himself thus He can use God's gift of tongues in turning it around to be gbberish nonsense in uttering His prayers when he cannot do even that according to the KJV.

 

I can say that the Passover is designated as the 14th day of the first month followed by the 7 days of unleavened bread. Leviticus 23:5 Numbers 9:5 & Joshua 5:10 & 2 Chronicles 35:1 are confirmations as to that specific day.

However.. Luke 22:1 & Luke 22:7 does associate the first day of the unleavened bread as the Passover for when the Passover must be killed.

Still, the word Greek pascha "of Chaldee origin (compare pecach 6453); the Passover (the meal, the day, the festival or the special sacrifices connected with it):--Easter, Passover. in comparing to pecach "from 'pacach' (6452); a pretermission, i.e. exemption; used only techically of the Jewish Passover (the festival or the victim):--passover (offering)."

I see that the Greek use of the term Passover is associating the 7 days of the unleavened bread with that specific day of Passover as given the example in Luke. What is confusing is that after the Passover are the 7 days of the unleavened bread.

Leviticus 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the Lord's passover. 6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the Lord: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread. KJV

Since Luke also had written the Book of Acts, Luke seems to be combining the 7 days of the unleavened bread with the Passover. I could understand why the KJV translators switched out Easter for Passover in Acts 12:4, in respect to the O.T. but why is Luke blurring the Passover with the 7 days of the unleavened bread that follows it? Could it be from being in occupied Israel? Could the Jewish people have been influenced to call the first day of Passover also as the first day of the 7 days of unleavened bread in spite of scripture designating the very next day as the first day of the 7 days of unleavened bread? Sort of like the non-Jews were the ones that associated Passover with the 7 days of the unleavened bread & evil communications corrupt good manners ( 1 Corinthians 15:33 ) whereby the Jews began associating Passover as the first day of unleavened bread when really, it started the next day.

Seems like the KJV translators should have gone with "after the 7 days of the unleavened bread" rather than passover or Easter just to be clear in Acts 12:4 but that is how Luke had written in the Greek.

I am not moved to see Easter as an error but He shall help me to defer from what many are claiming it to be the Holiday Easter as if that is what Acts 12:4 was referring to but just being a term meaning after the 7 days of the unleavened bread.