Th
The KJVO myth is the false doctrine that the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible translation, & that it's perfect.
I have posted the MAN-MADE ORIGIN of the current edition of that myth elsewhere in this "Bible Versions" forum. But NO believer of the KJVO myth can support that myth with SCRIPTURE from the KJV.(Or any other version)
Dr. Bob has posted an excellent rundown of the definitions of the KJVO myth in this forum at the beginning of it, in the "sticky posts" column.
Have you ever asked your self WHY some of the wording is changed in newer versions, besides getting rid of the archaic English? The MAIN reason is that some of the renderings are WRONG. For instance, "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is an outright GOOF. Newer versions replace it with the CORRECT rendering od "passover".
Now, while MVs have their own mistakes, the KJV is chock-full of them !
By your example of Easter is why you are in error. Proof?
Passover is a specific day which is followed by the 7 days of the unleavened bread.
Acts 12:1Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. 2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. 3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) 4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. 5 Peter therefore was kept in prison: .......KJV
Now some KJVers try to explain that Herod was a heathen & not a Jew, but over 5o KJV translators & divided into 8 groups, all checked each others' work within that group & their works were checked by the other groups. The origin of the word from which Easter was derived from as also meaning passover, was not Hebrew origin nor Greek origin. but Chaldee origin. It was a foreign word that associated the 7 days of unleavened bread with the Passover even though that was not the Passover day itself. To avoid the confusion of how the Greek had adapted that word to mean passover also, because Passover had come & gone when it is the 7 days of the unleavened bread that is what Herod was waiting for to be over with. Easter was applied as meant by the Chaldee origin as referring to Passover as associated with it but not the Passover day since it was to be after the 7 days of the unleavened bread.
Some modern Jews today associated the 7 days of unleavened bread as the Passover but scripture still separates the two events as maintained by other Jews. So I will stick with what the Bible says about the Passover day & Easter is just a foreign term used to associated the festival of the unleavened bread with the day of Passover, but yet not the Passover day itself.
In other words, Easter is not a term used as today in referring to the holiday called Easter nor to the pagan Easter. That term Easter is used in the Bible by associating the 7 days of the unleavened bread festivities with the day of the Passover.
If you cannot appreciate the KJV translators for clarity for how Easter is meant to be used as of the Chaldee origin, oh well.
I see you are avoiding the Romans 8:26 vs John 16:13 reproof for why I rely on the KJV for keeping the faith which is the good fight. Easter does nothing to to cause anyone to go astray other than to get believers to rely on other Bibles that actually support heresy.
