Flawless Bible Poll

You demonstrate that your question is not simple, straightforward. Those who respond to your question do not have to accept blindly your contradictory human reasoning. If someone claims that all of God's words are in one singular translation, they would be denying that all of God's words are preserved in a original-language Bible. According to the Scriptures, undermining the foundation of a Bible translation would be wrong.

 

Incorrect. I have come to terms with what I believe, and I have presented what I believe. I believe what the Scriptures teach.

I do not believe your inconsistent, uncertain, contradictory, human reasoning. It is pointless to vote on an invalid question that seems to involve the fallacy of false dilemma and that involves mere speculation.

 

......you won't vote, yet you can't keep yourself from posting about it! You are one weird, OBSESSED individual who obviously is in love with hearing himself talk or post. Perhaps you need to realize that most people on here don't really care what you think anymore. Get over yourself.

 

Perhaps you should take your own advice and get over yourself and your unkind, negative allegations or smears.

Perhaps readers of this forum may not care what you think about other posters.

I don't encourage readers to care about what I think as I advocate the use of consistent just measures and the just application of scriptural truths. My focus is on truth, not on me.

 

Sure it is. No one on this planet believes any single version is perfect except KJVonlyist and perhaps Mormons. YOU BELIEVE the KJV is perfect so a single edition is what you clearly refered to. A single edition. So on your poll only KJVOnlist verses everyone else. That is your reasoning. Had you worded it like JonC's meaning we could all have participated.

 

KJVOnlyism is a false teaching. Does it prick your conscious perhaps? Is that why you react to Logos1560's post's like that?

 

I voted "No" for the very-sound reason that every Bible translation in any language, no matter how careful the translators were, is the product of God's perfect word being handled by imperfect men.

However, I believe God caused these various valid translations to be made, because it was He who made the various languages & dialects & that he wants all people to be able to read or hear, & understand His word in whatever language(s) He has caused them to use.

He gave His word to His chosen penmen thruout the centuries in THEIR best or only language. For all we know, He might've given His laws to Moses in ancient Egyptian, as Mo had grown up using it. (But He likely wrote the Decalogue in ancient Hebrew, & the Levites recorded the law in Hebrew, as it was to be read to the Israelis throughout their generations, & their use of Egyptian faded after the Exodus.)

And, of course, as the Maker of all languages, God knows all the differences between languages, & has caused the MEANINGS of His actual words to be rendered in them.

But NO translation is technically simon-pure perfect. Close, but not perfect, same as 24K gold still contains traces of other metals, but is still pure for all practical purposes. So, thus, I voted "NO"!

 

2 others I know on this forum but can’t post here would choose yes, if you want to keep that in mind.

 

When someone makes exclusive only claims for one single perfect Bible translation or asks a question that advocates one single perfect translation, it is in effect the very same thing as KJV-only reasoning. The same human reasoning for perfection for only one translation underlies it. Making a claim for one perfect translation makes that one translation be versus all other translations.