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Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by SavedByGrace, Jun 24, 2021.

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  1. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    But, as I have shown from the OP, even without "grammatical" issues, the words in verse 13 can only refer to Jesus Christ!
     
  2. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    The version you use must be the critical text. You mentioned Greek grammar. Are you speaking of the grammar of the original text. If so I would like to know what that grammar is based on. Since Biblical Greek and modern Greek are not the same. Nor is there any Text explaining the grammar used in Biblical Greek from the time of Biblical Greek
    MB
     
  3. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    NT Greek which is Koine, or "common". Not modern Greek. What is your issue?
     
  4. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Absurd premise, why did the NET, NIV, NKJV, NASB fix the problem if non-existent?
     
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  5. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Sharp Redivivus? - A Reexamination of the Granville Sharp Rule | Bible.org
     
  6. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    the so called "fix" is for theology! Both readings are allowed by the Greek in the verse! How much Greek grammar do you know?
     
  7. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Advocating ambiguous translation choices allows false doctrine to be read into the text.
    I know next to nothing concerning Greek grammar, but I can read English, which apparently is your problem.
     
  9. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    And how much Greek grammar do you know??? :)
     
  10. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    you do know that the New Testament was written in Greek, and not English? So, your knowledge of the English language matters ZERO!
     
  11. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    you can see from my many threads...ADVANCED
     
  12. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    So far as I can see, there are no textual variants in Titus 2:13. M.T., C.T. and T,R seem to be in harmony. As I recall, the same is true in 1 Peter 1:1.
     
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  13. tyndale1946

    tyndale1946 Well-Known Member
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    Well I have studied the doctrine of the Godhead and each member of the Godhead, had a purpose and neither one could carry out the purpose of the other, though ALL were connected to the purpose to SAVE, just one, if just one needed saving... As a preacher I know has said... Three in one and one in three and the one in the middle died for me!... Brethren on here as long as I've been here, having been trying to explain the Trinity?... As they say its above your pay grade!... I believe in three person but one God... Do you have the Father giving to the Son, who is the Father?... Do you have Jesus Christ praying to himself?... What are you going to do with the Holy Spirit?... Some brethren one here treat him like a non-entity... The Godhead... The Eternal Father is the creator... The Eternal Son is the redeemer and The Holy Spirit is the regenerator... And without the purpose and working of the Godhead, the three and one together... None would be saved!... And would someone please explain these verses to me, does the Son deliver the Kingdom to himself?

    1 Corinthians 15:24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

    15:25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.

    15:26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.

    15:27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.

    15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

    And btw... Don't you you brethren try to slide your millennial reign in here, it doesn't fit!... Brother Glen:)
     
  14. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Is this the height of you expertise, to waste time with false charges. Know-it-all blowhards are a stain on bible study.
     
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  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Yes we see you have the unmitigated gall, the unabashed temerity to question the knowledge level of Dr. Dan Wallace.
     
  16. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    WOW! Dr Wallace, so he must be right? Yeah, he is also very wrong to reject 1 John 5:7 as in the KJV, as the Greek grammar shows in verses 6-10, that the disputed words about the Holy Trinity, MUST form part of the passage, or else the Greek Grammar is faulty, which is impossible, as God Himself Inspired the Writers of the 66 Books of the Holy Bible. Wallace as a Greek "scholar" should know about this, and if he does, then his knowledge of the grammar here is wrong! Don't let "scholars" make you think that they must be right!
     
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  17. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    and this is from someone who know next to nothing about Greek grammar! :rolleyes:
     
  18. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    My Problem is the history of where the grammar comes from.There is no 2000 year old books on Grammar. Nor are there dictionaries from the period. There is nothing on punctuation. Paragraphs or sentences that I am able to find. Not speaking the language them selves, where did these Greek scholars come up with the proper grammar for that period.
    MB
     
  19. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    see # 17, from Greek scholars who actually KNOW what they are talking about!
     
  20. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    this might help you, Ancient Greek grammar - Wikipedia
     
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