Featured Whosoever - John 3:16

I agree that John is not speaking about election, he is speaking about salvation that is available to anyone in the world.

I copied out the relevant section.
6:00 okay going back over to

6:02 john 3 16 then you can see that we have

6:05 exactly the same construction you could

6:08 also go back to cosmond {κόσμον,G2889} and see how

6:10 cosmon is used

6:12 in john actually in the whole new

6:14 testament

6:15 it doesn't refer to the elect okay i'm

6:18 reformed but cosmond does not refer to

6:21 the elect it's the whole world
6:24 and
6:25 what this means is that anyone who's in

6:28 the world who believes in him will in

6:31 fact not perish but will in fact have

6:34 eternal life so whatever your

6:35 theological possession please don't read

6:38 it into the greek pos is indefinite

6:40 cosmon is inclusive of all people
6:44 the limitation is and now people would

6:46 agree with this unless you're against

6:48 the universalist but any individual who

6:50 believes in him okay whether he's elect

6:53 or not leave that aside that's not what

6:55 john is talking about here anyone who

6:57 believes in him the fact of the matter

 

Nothing in the verse states that everyone can believe. You are using eisegesis again to force your philosophy on the text. That is not what Mounce did and the transcript bears this out.

I would agree that anyone in the world may potentially believe as God has already chosen them before the foundation of the world. But, neither your assertion nor my assertion is explicitly stated in John 3:16. This is why all scripture is studied.

 

"as God has already chosen them before the foundation of the world" Austin you have just proven that you read into the text what you need to find, that is called eisegesis.

Mounce agreed with the bible and said that anyone could be saved, whereas your failed theology say only a select few will be saved. So sorry there Austin your philosophy looses again.

 

Exactly

 

I assume there should be an explicit Biblical teaching at issue or an interpretion that for another reason takes precedence over something they taught.

 

Well since your version of election is not biblical, ie "elect before the foundation of the world" then why would you expect Mounce to say that is in Joh 3:16?

it doesn't refer to the elect okay i'm
6:18 reformed but cosmond does not refer to
6:21 the elect it's the whole world
6:24 and
6:25 what this means is that anyone who's in
6:28 the world who believes in him will in
6:31 fact not perish but will in fact have
6:34 eternal life

But he does say that salvation is available to anyone in the world not just the Calvinist pre-selected ones.

 

Anyone who believes in the Lord Jesus Christ as the only begotten Son of God will be saved.. The emphasis is on Christ as the object of belief. I believe I'll have a beer later on tonight, but that belief isn't going to help me!
But I don't understand why you think this versee is going to help you in your increasingly frantic crusade against Calvinism.; it simply doesn't address the issue..

 

John 18:20 fits perfectly.

 

I take an actual Greek scholar and expert in hermeneutics over GotQuestions. com

 

I am not reading it into that text. I am reading it in Ephesians 1:3-4 which is specifically talking to that issue. John is not concerned with that point here in John 3:16.
You are proving my assertion that you do not bring all of scripture into your theology. Thus you fail to discern the truth of God's revelation to you.

 

That passage speaks of God's choosing not the election of His elect.

 

You are attempting to make a distinction where there is none.
Choosing is election. Election is choosing.

 

Two related words. In the translation I am using, only one of the two is sometimes translated "elect." Not εξελεξατο. But εκλεκτοι is.

 

They still mean the same thing. Elect and choose are synonymous.

 

That's the same thing.

 

Wow you post the video by Mounce and then disagree with what he said. I can see why your a Calvinist, you just change what ever you like so that it suits your view at that time.

 

If you hold to that view you are going to have some serious problems with the bible. But then again you already do have serious problems with the bible, your theology does not fit with the bible text.

 

So your now promoting universalism.

 

No, they are not. One happened before the creation of mankind, Ephesians 1:3-4. The "election" takes place in the believers life time, Matthew 22:14.

 

No

*Ephesians 1:3-6*

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places, even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him. In love he predestined us for adoption as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, to the praise of his glorious grace, with which he has blessed us in the Beloved.

*Matthew 22:11-14*

“But when the king came in to look at the guests, he saw there a man who had no wedding garment. And he said to him, ‘Friend, how did you get in here without a wedding garment?’ And he was speechless. Then the king said to the attendants, ‘Bind him hand and foot and cast him into the outer darkness. In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.’ For many are called, but few are chosen.”

In Matthew 22, Jesus is showing us that only those whom God gives the wedding garment are allowed into the feast. The person in the parable tried to get in on their terms without having been given the garment. They had not been chosen and thus they were rejected.

You are attempting to compare two passages, but you have missed Jesus point.