Featured 1 John 2:2

Yes, elect from all over the globe.

 

"Our sins" is referencing the Jews. "The whole world" refers to the elect from around the world.

 

Propitiation refers to the turning away of the wrath of God as the just judgment of our sin by the sacrifice of Jesus Christ on the cross. “Propitiation is used in the New Testament to describe the pacifying, placating, or appeasing of God’s wrath”.
Propitiation

Now read 1 John 2:2 and tell me your interpretation.

"He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world."

Since God's wrath is turned away from the entire world's sins, how can you teach that God's wrath falls on people who don't believe? Tell me how you can read God's wrath into 1 John 2:2 since you obviously believe that God will cast unbelievers into hell. Where does 1 John 2:2 tell you that? It says that Jesus is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world. That means the wrath of God has been appeased against the whole world. Right? Or did God mean to say some, not all? Please tell us how you get out of your conundrum?

 

Right. Close enough.

 

Another good link.

Right again.

 

Your opinions matter for naught. Back up your claims from scripture. All I have seen from you calvinists is opinion.

 

You still have a real problem with the text don't you. You can not read your view into propitiation and hope that I will agree.

Propitiation The act of appeasing wrath and conciliating the favor of an offended person; the act of making propitious. {in biblical theology, God}
Propitious Disposed to be gracious or merciful; ready to forgive sins and bestow blessings; applied to God. Webster

I understand that you struggle with what propitiation means. When Christ was the propitiation for all our sins it allowed God to be propitious. It is right there in front of you. How can you keep missing that?

You only focus on the words that you think will help you support your errant theology and ignore everything else. How do you expect to learn anything that way? But that seems to be common for the calvinist's that I have had to deal with.

Because God has been propitiated He can be propitious and be gracious and merciful; and ready to forgive sins and bestow blessings upon those that freely trust in His risen Son.

The calvinist proof text system does not impress me in the least. And from what I have seen very few calvinist's will use scripture to support their view and those are usually pulled out of context. I have presented you with scripture and proper definitions and you still struggle with the truth. Why is that?

I really do not care if you call yourself a calvinist or an arminian or even just a disciple of Christ as long as you support your view from clear contextual scripture.

So while you think I have a conundrum with the text it is only because what I have written does not fit into your theological grid and thus it is only in your mind.

I am sure we will cross keyboards again, it has been an interesting discussion.

 

I appreciate you giving cross-references.

What the Lord of creation in Acts 4:24 and Colossians 1:16-17,

has to do with Who "the Lord" is in 2 Peter 2:1, I dunno.

1 But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction."

I can say that the companion scripture, in Jude 1:4, does mention the Lord Jesus Christ, but it isn't saying His Name there, in a way that would identify Him as the One having to do with having 'bought' anyone.

Jude 1:4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.

This mention of 'our Lord Jesus Christ' is describing Who else those ungodly men were 'denying', in addition to 'the only Lord', not Who bought them.

While at the same time, Jude 1:4, is making a distinction between 'the only Lord' and 'our Lord Jesus Christ'.

since, 'the only Lord' is different than ' our Lord Jesus Christ', then we know 'the only Lord' is referring to God the Father.

That means that by seeing 'the only Lord' in the companion scripture Jude 1:4, as God the Father, we can know that when we double back to 2 Peter 2:1, that

'the Lord that bought them' is also referring to God the Father.

1 But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction."

 

Correct Rev 5:9

9 And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;

Lk 1:68

Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,