Silverhair
Well-Known Member
Therefore, by your statement, there is no longer any wrath for any sin ever committed because Jesus has fully appeased the wrath of God.
Why then does the Bible continually express God's wrath toward humans as it does in Revelation?
Certainly, by your reckoning, God cannot judge anyone according to their sin because Jesus appeased that wrath.
Where does God say that Jesus did not appease His wrath against unbelief, but Jesus appeased God's wrath against all other sins?
You cannot find it in 1 John 2:2.
@taisto why do you struggle so hard to understand clear scripture.
You will continue to twist scripture to your destruction.
What did I post
"Propitiation The act of appeasing wrath and conciliating the favor of an offended person; the act of making propitious.
So when I gave you the definition of propitious it was to make what John was saying clearer. That is not adding words to the text.
Propitious Disposed to be gracious or merciful; ready to forgive sins and bestow blessings; applied to God.
Do you not agree that that is what John was saying in 1 John 2:2
1Jn 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.
Was John not saying God was gracious or merciful; ready to forgive sins and bestow blessings on not just believers but also the whole world of unbelievers."
Now I have to call into question your ability to comprehend clear English. How many times must you be told something before it sinks in. Unless you missed it I am questioning your intelligence. Not as in insult but just as an observation.
Intelligence
The capacity for learning, reasoning, or understanding. The relative aptitude in grasping truths
I have presented truths to you but you seem incapable of grasping them or you just do not want to accept them.
You seem to enjoy playing silly word games I do not. To me that is just childish behavior. So I will leave you to play your games with someone else.