Featured Different interpretations based on different interpretations.... lol

One of you guys told me, no, Jesus was “implanted”, which is not scriptural.

“You will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to call him Jesus.“

Mary conceived Jesus in her womb. Which means one of her eggs was fertilised, so Jesus was formed of Mary’s sinless flesh and blood.

Mary could not conceive Jesus if her flesh was tainted by sin, just obvious.

Jesus is the sinless, unblemished Lamb of God.

An attack on Mary’s sinlessness, is an attack on Jesus sinlessness.

 

Per John 1:3 and John 1:14,

". . . All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. . . ."

". . . And the Word was made flesh, . . ."

You lack understanding as to the cause.
Genesis 3:22, ". . . And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: . . ."
The LORD God who spoke to the Father. And so it was God's knowledge of evil that caused man to have a sinful nature.

So the Son of God becoming flesh through His mother would only bring Him the same knowledge of good and evil that He would bring as the Son of God being He was the Creator.

So it is written in Hebrews 4:15, . . . was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. . . ." And because He was God He would not sin, as Jesus explained, ". . . none is good, save one, that is, God."

His mother could not be sinless, only He could being that He could not cease being God.

 

That mary was sinless is just another of the false claims of the RCC. But what we do know is what the bible tells us
Mary herself confessed that she was a sinner, for she needed a Saviour (Luk_1:46-47).

For there is no difference; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, Rom 3:22-23

The RCC in actual fact worships Mary, the mother of Jesus, more than it worships either God or Christ. For instance, as we have already seen, when praying with a rosary, one our Father is followed by ten Ave Marias. The RCC concept of prayer calls for endless repetition of a few set prayers of praise addressed partly to God, but more frequently to the "Virgin Mary".

Would this not fall under the injunction not to use vain repetition in prayer. Mat_6:7-8
To use beads to check off a fixed number of repetitions is just mechanical, and misses entirely the true relationship of prayer, which is that of a subject before his king, a child before its father.

 

@Cathode you have made a baseless claim that mary was sinless do you make another baseless claim for the Infallibility of the pope?

 

Mary confessed that she was already saved before Jesus died on the Cross. “ My Spirit rejoices in God my saviour “. Mary was saved before she could fall into sin, we are saved after we fell into sin.
Mary’s special mission to conceive Jesus Christ required her to be saved from sin.

The Romans quote is referring to all the nations falling short, the Jews weren’t any better than anyone else. So it’s not referring to every individual.

False,Slander.

The rosary is the words of scripture, and praying to Mary is fine. What is banned is worshipping Mary which is making sacrifices, which we don’t, never have.
Those prayers are just asking her to pray for us.

Vain repetition is a false translation. The Greek says battalog. Babble, which was a practice of pagans at the time, in the hopes that certain sounds would please the gods.

The Rosary is primarily a meditation of Jesus life from Conception to His Ascension into Heaven.

The Lord’s Prayer and the words of scripture are neither “ vain repetitions “ or babble, they are the Holy Word of God.

 

The Lord Jesus was sinless because His paternal lineage was not from Adam.

In Adam, all are sinners, and all die, even Mary.

Sin passes from the father to the child. That is the reason the Lord Jesus HAD to be born of a virgin.

In Christ, all are made alive.

 

Sin passes between mother and child as well, that’s why Mary had to be sinless.

“5 Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me. 5 For I was born a sinner— yes, from the moment my mother conceived me. 5 I've been out of step with you for a long time, in the wrong since before I was born.“ Psalm 51:5

In Sin did Mary conceive Jesus, NO.

If Mary was in sin, Jesus would have been a sinner from conception, even before birth.

Mary had to be sinless and full of Grace to conceive Jesus in her womb.

You attack Mary’s sinlessness, you attack Jesus sinlessness.

 

So then was Mary's mother also sinless in order to conceive Mary?

 

There is nothing in scripture that supports your errant view that mary was sinless or that Christ must have been born a sinner if He was born of a sinful mother. But we do have scripture that points to Christ being sinless:
Heb_4:15 For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin.
Christ was called the "lamb of God" the sacrifice to take away our sins. He had to be spotless, without blemish. Was mary even call sinless, spotless or without blemish?

I am sure you must have clear scripture that supports such a major doctrine as this.

 

False, not biblical

“When a nation sins, it will have one ruler after another. But a nation will be strong and endure when it has intelligent, sensible leaders. 3 Someone in authority who oppresses poor people is like a driving rain that destroys the crops.”

No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless. Mary was specially preserved from all sin by God, so that she could conceive Jesus who had no sin.

If Mary was a sinner , she could never have conceived Jesus in her womb.

 

And there is the fly in the buttermilk of the RCC theory.

That is the problem for those that hold to the RCC view. They fail to think through the illogical ideas that come out of their church. They just trust the RCC because they have been taught to trust the RCC no critical thinking allowed.

 

Who told you this, the RCC? Did you ever think it through? Since the RCC can not base that view on scripture what have the based it on?

Isn't the bible supposed to be the standard of truth.

 

No only your opinion of scripture is the standard of truth apparently.

Your saying Mary conceived Jesus in sin and iniquity, that’s blasphemy. Jesus was not conceived in sin, Jesus was completely sinless.

 

Hmmmm. Seems if God could 'specially preserve' Mary, He could 'specially preserve' Jesus (God in the Flesh) and then Mary didn't need to be sinless (which she wasn't Rom 3:23). I mean you said above that, 'No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless.'
So I will stick with God's Word that, 'All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God'. Rom 3:23.

 

Jesus was and is sinless mary was neither. The blasphemy is when the RCC tries to elevate mary it the level of Christ.

But I note you have still not provide one verse of scripture that supports your errant view.

You have based your theology on the dogma of the RCC rather than the word of God.

 

In preserving Mary from sin, God made it possible for her to conceive Jesus.

Not possible to conceive Jesus if she was in sin.

Mary conceived, Jesus took flesh of her sinless flesh.

All nations have sinned and fallen short, read the context, Paul was saying the Jews weren’t any better off than the gentiles.
It wasn’t talking about all individuals.

 

No, we don’t, you resort to slander. Read the catechism, it says that Mary is a creature, not divine.

Error, Yes I did, anyone can see the scriptures I posted.

I proved you wrong from scripture. Isn’t that what you asked me to do?

 

Still waiting for you to address what I wrote above. Here it is again:
if God could 'specially preserve' Mary, He could 'specially preserve' Jesus (God in the Flesh) and then Mary didn't need to be sinless (which she wasn't Rom 3:23). I mean you said above that, 'No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless.'