Different interpretations based on different interpretations.... lol

[Cathode]

Wrong on two counts.
Both have to do with the eternal Son of God was always God the Creator.

One of you guys told me, no, Jesus was “implanted”, which is not scriptural.

“You will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to call him Jesus.“

Mary conceived Jesus in her womb. Which means one of her eggs was fertilised, so Jesus was formed of Mary’s sinless flesh and blood.

Mary could not conceive Jesus if her flesh was tainted by sin, just obvious.

Jesus is the sinless, unblemished Lamb of God.

An attack on Mary’s sinlessness, is an attack on Jesus sinlessness.

 

[37818]

Mary conceived Jesus in her womb. Which means one of her eggs was fertilised, so Jesus was formed of Mary’s sinless flesh and blood.

Per John 1:3 and John 1:14,

". . . All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. . . ."

". . . And the Word was made flesh, . . ."

Mary could not conceive Jesus if her flesh was tainted by sin, just obvious.

You lack understanding as to the cause.
Genesis 3:22, ". . . And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: . . ."
The LORD God who spoke to the Father. And so it was God's knowledge of evil that caused man to have a sinful nature.

So the Son of God becoming flesh through His mother would only bring Him the same knowledge of good and evil that He would bring as the Son of God being He was the Creator.

So it is written in Hebrews 4:15, . . . was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. . . ." And because He was God He would not sin, as Jesus explained, ". . . none is good, save one, that is, God."

His mother could not be sinless, only He could being that He could not cease being God.

 

[Silverhair]

One of you guys told me, no, Jesus was “implanted”, which is not scriptural.

“You will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to call him Jesus.“

Mary conceived Jesus in her womb. Which means one of her eggs was fertilised, so Jesus was formed of Mary’s sinless flesh and blood.

Mary could not conceive Jesus if her flesh was tainted by sin, just obvious.

Jesus is the sinless, unblemished Lamb of God.

An attack on Mary’s sinlessness, is an attack on Jesus sinlessness.

That mary was sinless is just another of the false claims of the RCC. But what we do know is what the bible tells us
Mary herself confessed that she was a sinner, for she needed a Saviour (Luk_1:46-47).

For there is no difference; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, Rom 3:22-23

The RCC in actual fact worships Mary, the mother of Jesus, more than it worships either God or Christ. For instance, as we have already seen, when praying with a rosary, one our Father is followed by ten Ave Marias. The RCC concept of prayer calls for endless repetition of a few set prayers of praise addressed partly to God, but more frequently to the "Virgin Mary".

Would this not fall under the injunction not to use vain repetition in prayer. Mat_6:7-8
To use beads to check off a fixed number of repetitions is just mechanical, and misses entirely the true relationship of prayer, which is that of a subject before his king, a child before its father.

 

[Silverhair]

One of you guys told me, no, Jesus was “implanted”, which is not scriptural.

“You will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to call him Jesus.“

Mary conceived Jesus in her womb. Which means one of her eggs was fertilised, so Jesus was formed of Mary’s sinless flesh and blood.

Mary could not conceive Jesus if her flesh was tainted by sin, just obvious.

Jesus is the sinless, unblemished Lamb of God.

An attack on Mary’s sinlessness, is an attack on Jesus sinlessness.

@Cathode you have made a baseless claim that mary was sinless do you make another baseless claim for the Infallibility of the pope?

 

[Cathode]

That mary was sinless is just another of the false claims of the RCC. But what we do know is what the bible tells us
Mary herself confessed that she was a sinner, for she needed a Saviour (Luk_1:46-47).

Mary confessed that she was already saved before Jesus died on the Cross. “ My Spirit rejoices in God my saviour “. Mary was saved before she could fall into sin, we are saved after we fell into sin.
Mary’s special mission to conceive Jesus Christ required her to be saved from sin.

For there is no difference; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, Rom 3:22-23

The Romans quote is referring to all the nations falling short, the Jews weren’t any better than anyone else. So it’s not referring to every individual.

The RCC in actual fact worships Mary, the mother of Jesus, more than it worships either God or Christ.

False,Slander.

For instance, as we have already seen, when praying with a rosary, one our Father is followed by ten Ave Marias. The RCC concept of prayer calls for endless repetition of a few set prayers of praise addressed partly to God, but more frequently to the "Virgin Mary".

The rosary is the words of scripture, and praying to Mary is fine. What is banned is worshipping Mary which is making sacrifices, which we don’t, never have.
Those prayers are just asking her to pray for us.

Would this not fall under the injunction not to use vain repetition in prayer. Mat_6:7-8

Vain repetition is a false translation. The Greek says battalog. Babble, which was a practice of pagans at the time, in the hopes that certain sounds would please the gods.

To use beads to check off a fixed number of repetitions is just mechanical, and misses entirely the true relationship of prayer, which is that of a subject before his king, a child before its father.

The Rosary is primarily a meditation of Jesus life from Conception to His Ascension into Heaven.

The Lord’s Prayer and the words of scripture are neither “ vain repetitions “ or babble, they are the Holy Word of God.

 

[MrW]

The Lord Jesus was sinless because His paternal lineage was not from Adam.

In Adam, all are sinners, and all die, even Mary.

Sin passes from the father to the child. That is the reason the Lord Jesus HAD to be born of a virgin.

In Christ, all are made alive.

 

[Silverhair]

Mary confessed that she was already saved before Jesus died on the Cross. “ My Spirit rejoices in God my saviour “. Mary was saved before she could fall into sin, we are saved after we fell into sin.
Mary’s special mission to conceive Jesus Christ required her to be saved from sin.

That is an illogical comment. Saying she rejoices in God her savior does not mean she never sinned. Every sinner that is saved can say the same thing, does that mean they never sinned?

The Romans quote is referring to all the nations falling short, the Jews weren’t any better than anyone else. So it’s not referring to every individual.

Nations do not sin people do. Are now saying that multiple people are sinless?

False,Slander.

The essential prayers to be recited are three: the Paternoster (Our Father), the Ave Maria (Hail Mary), and the Gloria. Crossing oneself on the forehead and breast, the creed is first recited, then one Paternoster, followed by ten Aves and the Gloria, to which if desired other set prayers can be added. So you spend more time praying to mary than you do to God. The question is why? She can not save, she can not forgive sin, she is not better than any other sinner, just like the rest of us she needed a savior.

The rosary is the words of scripture, and praying to Mary is fine. What is banned is worshipping Mary which is making sacrifices, which we don’t, never have.
Those prayers are just asking her to pray for us.

Well if you think you need to make a sacrifice for it to be considered worship then I have to ask, when was the last time you or anyone you know of made a sacrifice to Christ Jesus. By your logic the RCC does not even worship Christ.
Are these the words of the rosary regarding mary?
"Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with you; blessed are you among women, and blessed is the fruit of your womb, Jesus. Holy Mary, Mother of God, pray for us sinners now and at the hour of our death. Amen."

If the early Christians would rather suffer death than say "hail Cesar" as it was considered worship of him to do so why does the RCC
think it is right to say it in the rosary of mary?

Vain repetition is a false translation. The Greek says battalog. Babble, which was a practice of pagans at the time, in the hopes that certain sounds would please the gods.

You mean like saying the same prayer over and over, use vain repetitions G945. "to repeat the same things over and over, to use many idle words, to babble, prate" Thayer So your saying the the repetition of the Ava is really no different than what the pagans did. So saying the ava is in the hope of pleasing God.

The Rosary is primarily a meditation of Jesus life from Conception to His Ascension into Heaven.

The Lord’s Prayer and the words of scripture are neither “ vain repetitions “ or babble, they are the Holy Word of God.

Are you now calling the ava the words of scripture? I hope you have not fallen that far.

 

[Cathode]

The Lord Jesus was sinless because His paternal lineage was not from Adam.

In Adam, all are sinners, and all die, even Mary.

Sin passes from the father to the child. That is the reason the Lord Jesus HAD to be born of a virgin.

In Christ, all are made alive.

Sin passes between mother and child as well, that’s why Mary had to be sinless.

“5 Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me. 5 For I was born a sinner— yes, from the moment my mother conceived me. 5 I've been out of step with you for a long time, in the wrong since before I was born.“ Psalm 51:5

In Sin did Mary conceive Jesus, NO.

If Mary was in sin, Jesus would have been a sinner from conception, even before birth.

Mary had to be sinless and full of Grace to conceive Jesus in her womb.

You attack Mary’s sinlessness, you attack Jesus sinlessness.

 

[Mikoo]

Sin passes between mother and child as well, that’s why Mary had to be sinless.

“5 Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me. 5 For I was born a sinner— yes, from the moment my mother conceived me. 5 I've been out of step with you for a long time, in the wrong since before I was born.“ Psalm 51:5

In Sin did Mary conceive Jesus, NO.

If Mary was in sin, Jesus would have been a sinner from conception, even before birth.

Mary had to be sinless and full of Grace to conceive Jesus in her womb.

You attack Mary’s sinlessness, you attack Jesus sinlessness.

So then was Mary's mother also sinless in order to conceive Mary?

 

[Silverhair]

Sin passes between mother and child as well, that’s why Mary had to be sinless.

“5 Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me. 5 For I was born a sinner— yes, from the moment my mother conceived me. 5 I've been out of step with you for a long time, in the wrong since before I was born.“ Psalm 51:5

In Sin did Mary conceive Jesus, NO.

If Mary was in sin, Jesus would have been a sinner from conception, even before birth.

Mary had to be sinless and full of Grace to conceive Jesus in her womb.

You attack Mary’s sinlessness, you attack Jesus sinlessness.

There is nothing in scripture that supports your errant view that mary was sinless or that Christ must have been born a sinner if He was born of a sinful mother. But we do have scripture that points to Christ being sinless:
Heb_4:15 For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin.
Christ was called the "lamb of God" the sacrifice to take away our sins. He had to be spotless, without blemish. Was mary even call sinless, spotless or without blemish?

I am sure you must have clear scripture that supports such a major doctrine as this.

 

[Cathode]

Nations do not sin people do. Are now saying that multiple people are sinless?

False, not biblical

“When a nation sins, it will have one ruler after another. But a nation will be strong and endure when it has intelligent, sensible leaders. 3 Someone in authority who oppresses poor people is like a driving rain that destroys the crops.”

So then was Mary's mother also sinless in order to conceive Mary?

No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless. Mary was specially preserved from all sin by God, so that she could conceive Jesus who had no sin.

If Mary was a sinner , she could never have conceived Jesus in her womb.

 

[Silverhair]

So then was Mary's mother also sinless in order to conceive Mary?

And there is the fly in the buttermilk of the RCC theory.

That is the problem for those that hold to the RCC view. They fail to think through the illogical ideas that come out of their church. They just trust the RCC because they have been taught to trust the RCC no critical thinking allowed.

 

[Silverhair]

“When a nation sins, it will have one ruler after another. But a nation will be strong and endure when it has intelligent, sensible leaders. 3 Someone in authority who oppresses poor people is like a driving rain that destroys the crops.”


No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless. Mary was specially preserved from all sin by God, so that she could conceive Jesus who had no sin.

If Mary was a sinner , she could never have conceived Jesus in her womb.

Who told you this, the RCC? Did you ever think it through? Since the RCC can not base that view on scripture what have the based it on?

Isn't the bible supposed to be the standard of truth.

 

[Cathode]

Who told you this, the RCC? Did you ever think it through? Since the RCC can not base that view on scripture what have the based it on?

Isn't the bible supposed to be the standard of truth.

No only your opinion of scripture is the standard of truth apparently.

Your saying Mary conceived Jesus in sin and iniquity, that’s blasphemy. Jesus was not conceived in sin, Jesus was completely sinless.

 

[Mikoo]

False, not biblical

No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless. Mary was specially preserved from all sin by God, so that she could conceive Jesus who had no sin.

If Mary was a sinner , she could never have conceived Jesus in her womb.

Hmmmm. Seems if God could 'specially preserve' Mary, He could 'specially preserve' Jesus (God in the Flesh) and then Mary didn't need to be sinless (which she wasn't Rom 3:23). I mean you said above that, 'No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless.'
So I will stick with God's Word that, 'All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God'. Rom 3:23.

 

[Silverhair]

No only your opinion of scripture is the standard of truth apparently.

Your saying Mary conceived Jesus in sin and iniquity, that’s blasphemy. Jesus was not conceived in sin, Jesus was completely sinless.

Jesus was and is sinless mary was neither. The blasphemy is when the RCC tries to elevate mary it the level of Christ.

But I note you have still not provide one verse of scripture that supports your errant view.

You have based your theology on the dogma of the RCC rather than the word of God.

 

[Cathode]

Hmmmm. Seems if God could 'specially preserve' Mary, He could 'specially preserve' Jesus (God in the Flesh) and then Mary didn't need to be sinless (which she wasn't Rom 3:23). I mean you said above that, 'No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless.'

In preserving Mary from sin, God made it possible for her to conceive Jesus.

Not possible to conceive Jesus if she was in sin.

Mary conceived, Jesus took flesh of her sinless flesh.

So I will stick with God's Word that, 'All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God'. Rom 3:23.

All nations have sinned and fallen short, read the context, Paul was saying the Jews weren’t any better off than the gentiles.
It wasn’t talking about all individuals.

 

[Mikoo]

In preserving Mary from sin, God made it possible for her to conceive Jesus.

Not possible to conceive Jesus if she was in sin.

Mary conceived, Jesus took flesh of her sinless flesh.

LOL. Funny, but in a sad way the length that those in the rc denomination will go to defend their heretical teachings.
You still haven't shown why I should believe the fallible men of the rc denomination over God's Word. Try again? This is what I wrote. You still haven't addressed it. (But we all know why).

Hmmmm. Seems if God could 'specially preserve' Mary, He could 'specially preserve' Jesus (God in the Flesh) and then Mary didn't need to be sinless (which she wasn't Rom 3:23). I mean you said above that, 'No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless.'



All nations have sinned and fallen short, read the context, Paul was saying the Jews weren’t any better off than the gentiles.
It wasn’t talking about all individuals.

Again. LOL. Funny, but in a sad way the length that those in the rc denomination will go to defend their heretical teachings.

 

[Cathode]

Jesus was and is sinless mary was neither. The blasphemy is when the RCC tries to elevate mary it the level of Christ.

No, we don’t, you resort to slander. Read the catechism, it says that Mary is a creature, not divine.

But I note you have still not provide one verse of scripture that supports your errant view.

Error, Yes I did, anyone can see the scriptures I posted.

You have based your theology on the dogma of the RCC rather than the word of God.

I proved you wrong from scripture. Isn’t that what you asked me to do?

 

[Mikoo]

No, we don’t, you resort to slander. Read the catechism, it says that Mary is a creature, not divine.



Error, Yes I did, anyone can see the scriptures I posted.



I proved you wrong from scripture. Isn’t that what you asked me to do?

Still waiting for you to address what I wrote above. Here it is again:
if God could 'specially preserve' Mary, He could 'specially preserve' Jesus (God in the Flesh) and then Mary didn't need to be sinless (which she wasn't Rom 3:23). I mean you said above that, 'No, Mary’s mother didn’t have to be sinless.'