Where is this in the Bible? This is something you have made up for yourself. I have shown you where your theory falls short. Here is my comment again.
To 'propitiate' someone is to turn his anger away and make him 'propitious' towards you. To do that, there usually has to be a 'propitiation.' That is a gift or offering designed to effect the turning away of wrath. You gave the example of buying someone you have offended a lunch. But your argument is that he can look at the lunch, but he can't eat it, because the lunch is the propitiation all on its own; the lunch cannot be both propitiation and 'execution.' That is plainly daft.
I am talking about Propitiation. You don't get to tell me what I'm talking about.
I don't understand these sentences. Do you mean 'of' rather than 'if'? You really need to check your work before you post it. It's a matter of common politeness.
I'm not sure what you are talking about, but I am certainly talking about God forgiving or punishing the wicked.
Absolutely not! If sinners being conformed into Christ's image is enough for God to forgive them, then there was no need for Christ to suffer and die. Your biggest problem is your 'theory of Penal Substitution' which bears very little resemblance to the actual doctrine. Go back and read the definition of the doctrine which I have posted multiple times, and let's discuss that. But Christ died for the ungodly, and without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sin. This is straight from the Bible which you claim to follow. Simply co forming [sic] sinners into Christ's image will not satisy God's justice.
Why are you talking about the 16th Century if all you are interested in the Bible? However, if you are talking about the Doctrine of Penal Substitution, this is clearly expressed in the Bible and spoken of by many of the ECFs. The doctrine was suppressed by the rise of Roman Catholicism, only partially recovered by Aquinas and missunderstood by Anselm. It was the Reformers and Puritans who went back to the Bible and fully recovered the doctrine despite the attacks upon it by the Socinians, which persist to this day.
It's God's 'theory.' I don't know what you mean by a 'metaphysical force' and I suspect you don't either. But what I know is that God set Christ forth as a propitiation in His blood so that He might be just and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus. If that setting forth had not been done, God would not have been just.
'[God] cannot deny Himself.' (2 Tim. 2:13). Before God can make the wicked a new creation, His justice must be satisfied. That is why Christ has to suffer and die. It what the Bible says, and it is time you accepted it.
This is your philosophy, is it? Denying basic Biblical doctrines like Penal Substitution is a form of liberalism, which has made a wreck of denominations like PCUSA and the Church of England. The churches urgently need to get back to Biblical doctrine, a major part of which is Penal Substitution.
Where in the Bible is it written that red is not blue?
Propitiated wrath cannot be experienced because of the defi itinerary of "propitiation".
Propitiation does not mean "substitute". A propitiation is something that reconciles by removing the obstacle between two parties.
Think of pagan sacrifices (as this is where we most often see the word). They would offer a sacrifice (a propitiation) to propitiate their god's favor. If they are in a drought, they may offer a propitiation for rain. If they believe this drought is due to a god's anger they may offer a propitiation to appease that anger. BUT the propitiation does not become the object of that anger. It propitiates the anger.
BUT YES! Absolutely!!! A propitiated offered to propiate anger does turn away that anger. The anger ceases to exist (it has been propitiated).
Where is this in the Bible? This is something you have made up for yourself. I have shown you where your theory falls short. Here is my comment again.
To 'propitiate' someone is to turn his anger away and make him 'propitious' towards you. To do that, there usually has to be a 'propitiation.' That is a gift or offering designed to effect the turning away of wrath. You gave the example of buying someone you have offended a lunch. But your argument is that he can look at the lunch, but he can't eat it, because the lunch is the propitiation all on its own; the lunch cannot be both propitiation and 'execution.' That is plainly daft.
I am talking about Propitiation. You don't get to tell me what I'm talking about.
I don't understand these sentences. Do you mean 'of' rather than 'if'? You really need to check your work before you post it. It's a matter of common politeness.
I'm not sure what you are talking about, but I am certainly talking about God forgiving or punishing the wicked.
Absolutely not! If sinners being conformed into Christ's image is enough for God to forgive them, then there was no need for Christ to suffer and die. Your biggest problem is your 'theory of Penal Substitution' which bears very little resemblance to the actual doctrine. Go back and read the definition of the doctrine which I have posted multiple times, and let's discuss that. But Christ died for the ungodly, and without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sin. This is straight from the Bible which you claim to follow. Simply co forming [sic] sinners into Christ's image will not satisy God's justice.
Why are you talking about the 16th Century if all you are interested in the Bible? However, if you are talking about the Doctrine of Penal Substitution, this is clearly expressed in the Bible and spoken of by many of the ECFs. The doctrine was suppressed by the rise of Roman Catholicism, only partially recovered by Aquinas and missunderstood by Anselm. It was the Reformers and Puritans who went back to the Bible and fully recovered the doctrine despite the attacks upon it by the Socinians, which persist to this day.
It's God's 'theory.' I don't know what you mean by a 'metaphysical force' and I suspect you don't either. But what I know is that God set Christ forth as a propitiation in His blood so that He might be just and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus. If that setting forth had not been done, God would not have been just.
'[God] cannot deny Himself.' (2 Tim. 2:13). Before God can make the wicked a new creation, His justice must be satisfied. That is why Christ has to suffer and die. It what the Bible says, and it is time you accepted it.
This is your philosophy, is it? Denying basic Biblical doctrines like Penal Substitution is a form of liberalism, which has made a wreck of denominations like PCUSA and the Church of England. The churches urgently need to get back to Biblical doctrine, a major part of which is Penal Substitution.
I am talking about the 16th century judicial philosophy because you are assuming it is how divine justice operates.
Much of our disagreement has to do with our ideas of justice.
You and I agree that when God judges (the "day of wrath", "Judgment") that God will seperate people.
One group, "the wicked") has "stored up wrath for themselves for the day of wrath".
The other group will have been "refined", "died to sin", "died to the flesh:, bern "made a new creation in Christ", been "made alive in Christ", "conformed into the image of Christ". This group has no guilt (they are new creations, conformed to the image of Christ". They will live.
So the thing remaining is not how God iz just and the justifier in terms of forgiving the sinner (we both agree on those passages) but a problem of the philosophy of justice one may choose.
Calvin studied a judicial philosophy that treated justice as a metaphysical force and the role of a judge to maintain a judicial balance. A crime equated to a debt that the judge is bound to collect. The focus is not on the criminal or the victim but on meeting the demands justice requires.
I could steal a loaf of bread to feed my starving daughter. If caught, my situation is not a factor. The crime demands a punishment that has to be collected. You could experience that for me and justice would be balanced.
I believe your judicial philosophy is wrong. I do not believe that justice works that way.
God is just in givng life to those who have been conformed to the image of Christ, who have died to sin, who have been recreated in Christ. God is also just in punishing those who stand before Him "on that day" as wicked men.
That is why I being up the 16th century judicial philosophy that John Calvin studied and accepted. It influences how one understands justice. Calvin was a student of Renaissance Humanianism as related to judicial philosophy (he was a student of law). As such, the philosophy he adopted was an adaptation of the Stoic notion of justice (without pantheism).
You can read Calvin's commentary on
De clementia for a fuller grasp on his ideas. But ultimately he formed a link between natural and Roman law. Since he viewed natural law as an extention of divine moral law, this judicial philosophy (if correct) had to be divine judicial philosophy.
What I am talking about can be sumerized in Calvin's view that punishment for every crime is necessary "to avenge the violation of the law".
This is the philosophy that you have been using when speaking of God being just. I doubt you studied it aoart from Calvin's theological contributions to your tradition, but the bottoming is I do not believe that this philosophy is valid (I believe it is, as it historically turned out to be, a flawed philosophy to apply to civil law and also that it misconstrues divine justice when applied to God.