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The greatest proof of the reality and power of the Word of God, the Bible, is how it changes people. In Japan I was the thrilled spectator of how the Word of God changed U. San, a Yakuza gangster and head of a drug pushing gang. Even before he trusted Christ as Savior he loved the Bible and was...

What in the world are you talking about? There is no "missing gospel." Are you talking about the phantom oral tradition of "Q", which exists in no document? And the "one chapter on the money traders" was never "removed." it exists in the 4th century Vaticanus manuscript of the NT. For crying...

No, Bart Ehrman is a textual critic, so he does not say that the Bible has been "rewritten." (He is listed as an author along with Metzger of the 34th edition of the textbook on that discipline, The Text of the NT.) If you think he does say the NT has been "rewritten," I'd like to see a quote...

Here is another principle of Optimal Equivalence. “The primary goal of translation is to convey the sense of the original with as much clarity as the original text and the translation language permit” (Holman Christian Standard Bible, “Foreword.” Nashville: Holman Bible Publishers, 2009, v.)...

Please get your facts straight. First of all, it is meaningless in this context that he has "PhDs in theology." I don't care how much an atheist is educated, if the degrees are from the wrong place he's wrong from the start. Ehrman's PhD (just one, I believe, not "PhDs") is from Princeton, which...

This is completely false. The Bible has never been "re-written." The Greek and Hebrew mss remain the same. However, it has been re-translated many times.

Christian author Philip Yancey has just confessed to an adulterous affair that took place for 8 years: Philip Yancey admits extramarital affair, will step away from ministry work to focus on marriage. I'm going to throw away the book he wrote that I still have. Adultery is an awful, evil sin...

Amen! Well said.

As independent Baptists, we have no "association" and no headquarters of any kind. As a former missionary, I like this very much, because it means that missionaries are not supported by a group but by individual churches! We had friends in our supporting churches, and were even visited once by a...

It also opens the question of what exactly is due process. Is the determination of harm to my citizens by another nation considered to be due process? Is it due process to kill someone in war because you were commanded to by your government? Are governments allowed to punish evil-doing...

What is your definition of murder?

There are various versions of the Baptist Distinctives, but to me a normative version is one that has five or six valid points, not dumbing down what a Baptist is, but not overdoing it either. There have been Baptists like this ever since the English Baptists at the beginning of the 17th...

It's not a quibble to a linguist, which is what I am. Here is a linguistic definition: "(Languages, words, etc.) that have developed from a common ancestor. E.g. English is cognate with German; likewise English beam is cognate with German Baum 'tree'" (P. H. Matthews, Oxford Concise Dictionary...

By that reasoning the death of Christ was not literal, because Jesus used that exact word in John 12:33 about His death: "This he said, signifying what death he should die." A very similar reference, Jesus "signifying" His death, is John 18:32, "That the saying of Jesus might be fulfilled, which...

Nope. It is mentioned seven times in that one passage. Interpreting by the grammatical-historical message, no symbolic passage even comes close to that.

There is no congruence whatsoever between the two judgments, so how can they be the same? Notice the facts about each judgment: Judgment Seat of Christ (2 Cor. 3 and 5 and Rom. 14:10): a seat; written to Christians (Paul says "we"); burnables and non burnables; no punishment but rewards...

And what you are missing is that 2 Cor. is NOT an apocalyptic book. And even with symbolism there should be some congruence between the two accounts if they are the same judgment, and there is none.

But the description of the two judgments is completely different: seat vs. throne, books, etc. I think your preterist preunderstanding brings you to that statement rather than actual exegesis.

Okay. I felt your statement to be ambiguous.

So again, two questions you did not really answer. 1. Does the bema judgment include lost people? 2. Are there punishments at the bema judgment?