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    Richard Francis Weymouth Said

    Keep 'em comin'. I reading his NT right now.
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    The Lord preserved his Words

    Is .01% the equivalent of "pure"?
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    The Lord preserved his Words

    This one is an obvious printer's (more specifically, typesetter's) error.
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    The Version I Use

    Thanks, Deacon. We were about due for a poll like this one. Except for the KJV, I have not read from any of those versions listed for quite some time (but I have read them all). Currently I am reading the Power New Testament - 3rd Ed. (Morford, 1st Ed. in 1998). This NT was bonded with an OT...
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    Last book of the Bible to be written - is NOT Revelation

    Bob, could you give a specific reference where RC Sproul has said this? Thanks
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    Trying To Understand KJVOnlyism

    Yes, I do know what I'm talking about, and the KJV was NOT based upon an Erasmus edition (his 5th edition was published nearly 70 years before 1604), nor solely based upon any single Greek text. The king's revisers drew upon many printed Greek (probably primarily Beza's latest edition), Latin...
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    Trying To Understand KJVOnlyism

    What were the names of the six manuscripts the KJV revisers used? What is your source? I've read numerous books on the KJV looking for exactly this info and have never found solid evidence that they actually used any manuscripts (only printed texts).
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    Is There Only One ...

    With all due respect, DrJames, your entire post (while probably interesting to some readers here) is completely irrelevant to the present discussion. The opening post asks the question "Is there only one way to translate faithful and accurate way to translate each word,phrase,sentence and...
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    Why did KJ authors use Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit?

    Scarlett O, you have a difficult situation but Deacon has given a very good answer (as he usually does). Your friend is not likely to be persuaded by the Greek (even though Yeshua1 is correct). I will add that there are several KJV verses that virtually undeniably indicate that the Holy Ghost...
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    Is There Only One ...

    I was thinking more like the Greek word opsarion (Strong's 3795) used in John 6 (the story of the feeding of the multitude). In verse 9 the KJV translates it "little fishes" but two verses later it is just "fishes". Did that species of fish suddenly become larger during the intervening verse?
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    KJV . . . rivers of living water . .

    The emphasis should be on "theory".
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    Is There Only One ...

    The KJV translates the words, phrases, sentences in some passages with different words or different word order (or even leaving words out) even when the context is clearly exactly the same in those parallel passages.
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    KJVO: What Improvements Can Be Made...

    Here was one attempt to improve the KJV http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=60560
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    Yes,the KJV has mistakes too

    Right. No need to apologize for your error. Interestingly, many translation projects have not intended to encompass the entire Bible. Many translators have chosen specific books (like "The Pentateuch" and "Jonah" published by Tyndale during his lifetime), the Psalms and Gospels have been...
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    Yes,the KJV has mistakes too

    Maybe your "google" thing is broken. It was not the "Four Gospels", he quoted from "Acts of the Apostles". You can buy the actual Penguin publication from 1958 here -- http://www.amazon.com/dp/B000YB94RA/?tag=baptis04-20
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    Yes,the KJV has mistakes too

    Mark 10:18 Things that are different are not the same? And Jesus sayd unto him, Why callest thou me good? There is no man good but one, [that is] God. (original AV1611) And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? [there is] none good but one, [that is], God. (modern KJBs) See a...
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    Any one else think I slandered the Niv here?

    Amy, I currently don't think King James was a homo- , but I have not done exhaustive research into this particular question (since it is not important to me personally). This is the minority position.
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    Suppose for a Moment, if you will.....

    One question: How did we know about the infinite powerful "God" and the "Holy Sprit" before this unquestionably faithful translation suddenly appeared? (Think about it.)
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    Any one else think I slandered the Niv here?

    Thank you for responding. I know you're not KJVO. There has been a segment of historians that believe that King James was a homosexual, while other historians are not so certain that the evidence can be considered conclusive. There is not likely going to be absolute 'proof'.
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    Any one else think I slandered the Niv here?

    By your conjecture, since the AV1611 clearly condemns unrighteous anger, lying, covetousness, envy, and stealing we can conclude that King James didn't commit these sins also?
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