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True. My sister divorced her (first) husband when she caught him committing adultery. But this verse is not addressing a justifiable divorce based upon a betrayal (as God's is with Judah); these men were committing frivolous divorces of convenience. The question is: who is committing the...

First, the verse doesn't say that God hates 'the divorced' (as class of people); and I didn't say that God hates 'the divorced'. The verse said that God hates divorce (a legal action). Second, many people may hate divorce for various reasons: the ugliness of the process, the financial costs...

Its not misspelled! Its just a typo.

Harold, you should familiarize yourself with the term 'eisogesis'.

You seem to reference John 15:26 (KJV) -- But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, [even] the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me: But the timing of the Holy Spirit's testimony of the Son is very clear: it is future (it...

Ehud, are you familiar with the term 'eisogesis'?

Your welcome, Dave. BTW, here is how Young renders Matthew 28:1 -- And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulchre, Notice that in this very literal version he correctly and consistantly...

Remember that a word represents a concept; sometimes those concepts are tangible ("chair", "tree", etc.) and sometimes those concepts are intangible ("love", "zero", etc.). If a foreign word were translated into English as "chair" it would not confirm that the foreign word actually means...

I don't have it, but the EMTV has been around for about 5 years. I have the Analytical-Literal Translation New Testament which is also MT-based; and I can recommend the ALT.

Does God really hate divorce when He is Himself divorced? (Jeremiah 3:8)

Like I said before: I'm not an expert. I know that singular or plural forms are not always translated into the English. For example, the singular word "heaven" from the phrase "kingdom of heaven" in Matthew (KJV 32 times) is actually plural in Greek. This may be a case of synecdoche (a figure of...

First, within the confines of this topic (just John 1:18 alone) we are not afforded the luxury of comparing Scripture with Scripture here. But more importantly, I want to be sure I understand your interpretation. So, you are seriously saying that the word "he" in John 1:18 is referring to the...

Hi Chris. When I interpret these translations I preceive precisely the opposite effect. Let me attempt to explain. Lets 'breakdown' the verse into phrases (KJV first) -- No man hath seen God at any time, ["God' is our primary topic] the only begotten Son, [introduction of the "begotten...

Hi Dave. Upfront, I'm not a Greek scholar. But I think there are three fairly straightforward reasons why it should be translated "week". But be aware that there are very elaborate and convincing explanations out there for why the translation should be "Sabbath". First, koine Greek didn't...

No. I don't think you would have asked this question if you had read what I wrote carefully -- That would exclude casual letters to family, grocery lists, etc. I thought I was being pretty clear that only "when he wrote in the capacity as an Apostle with a message from the Lord" would his...

Here is mostly what we know relating to 'inspiration' -- 1. All spoken prophecies (teachings) by God's "holy men" were motivated by the Holy Spirit; "Thus saith the Lord" proceeds the words of God over 400 times in the OT. This is historically consistent because these primarily oral societies...

Question for Deacon --

I agree, and I think that this is the key issue. Inspiration is the 'birth' (if you will) of the words of God. They cannot be 'born' again (bur praise the Lord WE can!). I see this as a parallel situation to when original content is created today. The author of the art can copyright their...

To be perfectly clear, I specifically stated that I thought everything written by Paul to the Corinthians was inspired; not everything that he generally "said". Certainly, I do not think that when Paul conversed casually he was always being inspired; likewise, he probably wrote casually at times...

I think a 'copy' (taken as a whole) should be considered LESS inspired than than the autograph. Why? Because all biblical handwritten documents of at least moderate length display copyist errors; these differences cannot be originally 'inspired'. At best, an apograph could only be partially...