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The verses do seem to be more like the KJV than most Geneva editions I looked at. But the quotations are not very precise, which is probably why you questioned them. For examples, Matthew 5:11 is completely missing the phrase "and persecute you". They did not include the first words of John...

What might the 'KJV-perfectionist' say now? Can the fact that the Hebrew word micpar ("number") is present in both passages in the underlying text of the KJV be denied? No. Could the KJV translators have been unaware that many ancient translations (Greek LXX, Latin, etc.) had a word...

Sakuras, welcome to BV&T forum.

If this is not proof of an error in the KJV (even if intentionally left out), then it is not possible to 'prove' anything is an 'error'.

I sorry that I do not understand what "never misuse the Word into thinking" means. I will clarify that I am not suggesting that the use of a particular translation should be avoided to prevent the possibility of offending someone; what I meant was, that in the process of discussing the...

Two quick questions for Thermodynamics, please -- Does this mean you reject the Majority Text? Have you actually read much of the Geneva before?

Here is what I have to offer, if I can be so bold as to advise a preacher. First, please pray about this matter. Second, be prepared to give up your right to preach from the version of your choice; you may need to give preference to members of your congregation and preach from the KJV. Of...

The three significant differences (plus a change in verb tense) in the Hebrew text between 1 Chronicles 16:14-22 and Psalm 105:7-15 are clearly visible (Black type) in the Darby translation -- He, Jehovah, is our God; His judgments are in all the earth. He, Jehovah, is our God; his...

The AV1611 did not significantly change the rendering of Psalm 105:12 from the Bishops' Bible (including "men") -- (105:10a) When they were a fewe men in number, and had ben straungers but a litle whyle in it: Some English Bibles prior to 1611 had "number" here, but not "men". However...

The AV1611 was to be a revision of the Bishops' Bible. The king's revisers were only to make changes to the Bishops' text necessitated by comparison with the original languages. The Bishops' Bible has "in number" at 1 Chronicles 16:19 -- When they were a fewe men in number, and had ben...

I've looked at two different English translations (Brenton, NETS) of the Septuagint and they both have "in number" in 1 Chronicles 16:19; neither had "men" in Psalms 105:12.

The Hebrew word math (Strong's #4962) primarily means 'males'; it is rendered as "men" 14 times in the KJV (of 22 occurrences). Evidently, it can mean 'few men' particularly in prose (but NOT in poetry). Since these verses are part of a psalm it would seem that it should simply be translated as...

Which of these jots and tittles are the right ones?

Another correction? Well, the words "for ever" in Psalms 105:8 perhaps are justified by the underlying Hebrew text. The phrase "for ever" could be seen as being parallel with "always" in 1 Chronicles 16:15. However, this diversity is not required. In my opinion, the same words in the same...

I don't mind if people prefer the KJV, even to the exclusion of all other English versions. I admit that their KJV-exclusionism doesn't make much sense to me. They offer their reasons why the KJV is best, and I have found none to be compelling. I read the KJV quite a bit myself and it has some...

Brother Greg, thanks for that very cordial post.

The Douay (also Douai) Old Testament was published too late to be infuential on the AV: the first volume Genesis - Job came in 1609; the following year Psalms - 2 Machabees (plus Apocrypha) was released as a second volume. But the Rheims New Testament had been issued in 1582.

Correction: it appears that the first "And" does indeed have Hebrew support (and is present in both passages). It should be used in an English translation; so, why wasn't it in the Psalm 105 translation?

The words of Scripture below are portion of a psalm David seems to have assigned Asaph to write. Other parts of this psalm in 1 Chronicles also match verses very well in the Book of Psalms. These two passages below are from the KJV and begin with precisely the same English words in the first...

Roby, what are some examples of pre-Wilkinson sermons or commentaries (such as Matthew Henry) that address Psalm 12:7 "them" as being people?