A look at the NKJV.

[sarcasm]Who can prevail against such
scholarship? [/sarcasm]

 

But you seem unfazed by the fact that Revelation in the KJV has added to God's words and changed them. In fact, God's words were changed over a dozen times in the last six verses of Revelation in the KJV. Why does not that bother you?

So by what Scriptural principle did you establish the KJV as the basis for you comparison?? Remember the words of Scripture that they who measure themselves by themselves are not wise. You must measure by an external standard. You remind me of the guy who went fishing and found a good spot so he put an big X in the bottom of his boat to mark the spot. You have put your X in the wrong place. The standard for comparision is the original language texts.

Would you please show us where God makes such a contention in his word? Just show us the place where God says this and we will be satisfied and we will switch.

Funny you bring this up. This is an old argument. Prior to this time, it was used most recently in ... you guessed it ... 1611 to condemn the usage of a modern translation. Prior to that it was used around 400 AD with the translation of the Vulgate by those who said a "modern translation" just wasn't needed and would cast doubt on what God's word really was.

My how times have (not) changed. As they say, the more they change, the more they remain the same. In other words your argument is not new; it has been used for 1500 years. And it is as untrue now as it was then. Each generation has proven your position wrong. No doubt this one will do the same.

 

Prouerbes XXX:5-6 (KJV1611):

Euery word of God +is pure: he
is a shield vnto them that put their
trust in him.
6. Adde thou not vnto his words,
lest he reproue thee, and thou be found a
lyar.

+ Heb. purified

Prouerbes XXX:5-6 (alternate KJV1611):

Euery word of God purified: he
is a shield vnto them that put their
trust in him.
6. Adde thou not vnto his words,
lest he reproue thee, and thou be found a
lyar.

Proverbs 30:5 (nKJV):

5 Every word of God is pure; He
is a shield to those who put their
trust in Him.
6 Do not add to His words,
Lest He rebuke you, and you be found a
liar.

Note the nKJV takes the majority reading
as does the KJV1611.
Note the nKJV honors God by capitalizing
the pronouns that refer to Him.
Note KJVOs don't read the KJV1611, but
some perverstion of it.

The New King James Version (nKJV) is the
inerrant and perfect written word of God
preserved for us to these last days.

 

Did I say that is what I think? I said that the verse *you* used to support your ideas was a misuse of Scripture, because it is *clear* that Rev. 22:19 is dealing with the book of Revelation, not the entire Bible. It doesn't take a rocket scientist to figure that one out. You should have used other Scripture, not this one, to support your point. And if you misuse something as obvious as Rev. 22:19, what else are you misusing or misinterpreting?

Neal

 

Steven,
Unlike you, who simply did a cut & paste from a KJVO site, I did the research:

Titus 3:10-KJV reads, "A man that is an heretick...reject." NKJV and NIV change "heretick" to "divisive man"; RSV and NASV to "factious" man.
The greek word here is hairetikos which refers to a person's ability to choose, especially a divisive or factious choice. It does not refer to someone who holds a contrary doctrine, which is what the modern word "heretic" implies.

Acts 4:27-KJV reads, "Thy holy child, Jesus." NKJV, NASV and RSV change "holy child" to "holy servant."
The Greek word here is pais which could mean "child" in a different context, but in this context referrs to young person in servitude, as a servant or handmaiden.

Acts 8:9-KJV reads, "bewitched the people." NKJV and NASV change "bewitched" to "astonished." NIV and RSV change "bewitched" to "amazed."
The greek word is existemi which means to "astound" or "amaze". In the old KJ english, "bewitched" used to mean the same thing in context, but today the word referrs only to the occult, and therefore is no longer an accurate translation.

Romans 1:25-KJV reads, "changed the truth of God into a lie." NKJV, NASV and NIV read "exchanged the truth of God for the lie" or "a lie."
Where the KJV uses "change", the greek word is metallasso which means "to exchange". Again this is a problem with old KJ english no longer meaning the same today as when it did then.

Romans 4:25-KJV reads, "Who was delivered for our offenses and was raised again for our justification." NKJV and NASV change "for" to "because of."
The greek word is dia which denotes the channel of an act. In this context, the phrase "because of" is the most accurate usage.
Another example of the old KJ english no longer meaning the same today as then.

2 Corinthians 10:5-KJV reads, "Casting down imaginations." NKJV, NIV and RSV change "imaginations" to "arguments."
The Greek word is logismos which referrs to cognitive or deductive reasoning. Again, a symantic problem with the outdated KJ language.

Colossians 3:2-KJV reads, "Set your affection on things above." NKJV, NASV, NIV and RSV change "affection" to "mind."
The Greek phroneo is used here, which means "to exercise the mind", or "be mindful".

1 Thessalonians 5:22-KJV reads, "Abstain from all appearance of evil." NKJV, NASV and RSV change "appearance" to "form."
The Greek is eidos Which means "form". It could be used to mean "appearance" as well, but the context here is any form, be it literal, figurative, visible, or non-visible.

2 Timothy 2:15-KJV reads, "Study to shew thyself approved unto God." NKJV and NASV change "study" to "be diligent." NIV and RSV change "study" to "do your best."
The Greek is spoudazo which implies the making of a most earnest effort, or making "due diligence".

Psalm 79:1-the word "heathen" in the KJV is changed to "nations" in the NKJV, NASV and NIV.
The Hebrew word is gowy which means "a foreign nation".

Isaiah 11:3-the entire phrase, "And shall make Him of quick understanding" in the KJV is eliminated in the NKJV, NASV, NIV and RSV.
The KJV uses this phrase in place of the Hebrew word ruwach, which is a rough word to translate, but senerally referrs to taking in through the senses. The NKJV has "his delight" instead.

Isaiah 66:5-the wonderful phrase, "But He shall appear to your joy" in the KJV disappears without explanation from NKJV, NASV, NIV and RSV.
Not true. The phrase is translated like this: 'That we may see your joy.' The word ra'ah translated "appear" means in this context "to see".

Daniel 3:25-the fourth person who was in the fiery furnace with Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, was identified as "the Son of God." The same identification is given in the text of the NKJV but a footnote reads "or, a son of the gods," and both NIV and NA SV actually have the latter reading in their texts.
Nebuchadnezzar, being a pagan and a worshiper of many false gods and not knowing the Yahweh would have said "a son of the gods" (which is consistent with the Hebrew).

 

Johnv: "Steven,
Unlike you, who simply did a cut & paste from a KJVO site, I did the research:"

Thank you, Brother Johnv for providing some
hard data. Hard data is much better then
leftover opinions.

Proverbs 22:17-21 (nKJV):
Incline your ear and hear the words
of the wise, And apply your heart
to my knowledge;
18 For it is a pleasant thing if you
keep them within you;
Let them all be fixed upon your lips,
19 So that your trust may be in the Lord;
I have instructed you today, even you.
20 Have I not written to you excellent
things Of counsels and knowledge,
21 That I may make you know the
certainty of the words of truth,
That you may answer words of truth
To those who send to you?

Yes, the New King James Version (nKJV)
testifies of itself that the
New King James Version (nKJV) is the
inerrant and perfect written word of God
preserved for us to these last days.

 

Steve M,
On your long post starting page 2 of this discussion you gave a list of verses that have parts of them deleted by the NKJV (the true Word of God). I do not know what you are talking about. I have checked the first few of those verses and have found that these omissions are found in the NKJV. Get your falsehoods straight before you post them.

 

Actually, the NKJV is absolutely correct in this point. The Primitive Baptists have developed their heretical notion that people are saved because Jesus has faith. They take that to mean that they don't actually have to believe in Christ. I think it is obvious why they use the KJV.

This was just added to clarify Harald's post.

 

Actually, the NKJV is absolutely correct in this point.</font>[/QUOTE]In reality it is debatable which is correct.

In the cases cited by Harald the Greek Genitive
can be either translated as a subjective genitive("faith of Christ/faithfulness of Christ") or an
objective genitive ("faith in Christ").

The only way to determine which is correct is the context.

For a contemporary defense of the case for the subjective genitive in Rom 3:22 and Gal 2:16 see the notes from the netbible on that passage:

http://www.netbible.org/cgi-bin/netbible.pl

-kman

 

These are not falsehoods. What the unattributed source
said is:

"PORTIONS OF 95 OTHER VERSES ARE QUESTIONED IN THE MARGIN OF THE NKJV ON THE BASIS OF THE UNITED BIBLE SOCIETIES TEXT"

The phrases are maintained in the body of the
text but "questioned" in the marginal notes.

The double standard i find here is that
KJVOs read the marginal notes of the nKJV
and don't bother to read the marginal
notes of the KJV1611 Oh, I forgot, KJVOs
don't read the KJV1611. Remember, Terry,
i'm the one who got kicked off an alleged
KJV1611 Only site for daring to quote
the KJV1611

 

Mr. Edwards, where can I get ahold of a copy of the 1611? Do you know of a place where I can find one w/ the footnotes & all?

 

] Howdy, JonHenry!

Thomas Nelson Publishers has a
reprint of The Holy Bible 1611 Edition.
I got my local Bible Book Store to order it
for me. I do live in the Bible Belt
so we have frequent Bible Book Stores.

 

In the very first post of this thread, Steven M. has a problem with the wording of Romans 4:25 in that the KJV uses the phrase "for our offenses" while the NKJV and some other MV's translate the phrase as "because of our offenses." Well, brother, the word "for" has more than one meaning. Are we to assume that He was "delivered for our offenses" means that He came to help us commit offenses? I think not. That would be sacrilege! The phrase "because of our offenses" is true to the meaning of the verse.

If you go into the post office and see a wanted poster stating that someone is wanted for murder, does that mean this person is wanted so that he can commit murder? How absurd! It means that the person is wanted "because of" murder that has already been committed. Thus is the "for" of this verse - Christ was not delivered so that He could help us commit more sin, but He was delivered because of the sin we have already commited and the sin which we will commit in the present and the future. It is utterly ridiculous to argue against the phrase "because of," for to argue this is to argue against the true meaning of the verse. Such is the case with many who adhere to the KJVO stance. They so staunchly "defend" the KJV that they end up arguing against the very meaning of the verses they hold so dear, contradicting themselves and damaging their own weak position.

I pray that we may all seek God's truth in His Word - no matter what version we choose to read!

 

Thank you, Brother Rsr!

Psalm 119:160 (nKJV):

The entirety of Your word is truth,
And every one of Your righteous judgments
endures forever.

The New King James Version (nKJV) testifies
of itself that it is the
inerrant and perfect written word of God
preserved for us for these last days.

 

Amen, Brother Keith M. -- preach it!

 

The KJV has "for" ("..our justification") in Rom. 4:25 and the NKJV has "because of". I checked in Webster's and one of the definitions of "for" was just that, "because of". The KJV has "for" two times in this verse. Both of them translate the Greek preposition "dia", which usually means "by" or "through". Then why did the KJV do a double blunder with its twain "for"'s? Why did it not render "through" as it so many times did with "dia"? Answer: the Anglican Greek scholars knew that "dia" before an accusative meant "because of" ("for"), not "through" or "by". When the KJV says "for" ("our justification") it means "on account of" or "because of". The KJV and the NKJV are in agreement here. Paul taught the Romans that Christ was delivered up because of their offences, and raised on account of their justification. Meaning God His Father raised Him up from among dead ones on account of Him having justified His chosen people by His obedience unto that bloody death on the cross. Justification of God's elect took place on Calvary's cross in the Person of the Lord Jesus Christ. Christ Himself said on the tree: "it is finished". The resurrection testified to this glorious fact.

The implication of this scriptural truth is that any message called "Gospel" which does not stress the fact of a completed justification on Calvary's cross in Christ Jesus is another gospel. The gospels which teach justification before the holy and righteous God by subjective faith in Christ are false and accursed gospels. They rob the preeminence from Christ Jesus the Lord in the bussiness of the justification of His people, which took place at the cross of Golgotha.

Harald

 

Psalm 119:140 (nKJV):
Your word is very pure; Therefore
Your servant loves it.


Thus the New King James Version (nKJV)
testifies of itself that it is the
inerrant and PERFECT written word of God
preserved for us for these last days.