Originally posted by JYD:
The NKJV has ASV,RSV and NASV readings in it;look at 2thessalonians 2:7,
Which part do you have a problem with. "Lawlessness" and "iniquity" mean exactly the same thing as used in this context. "Letteth" in the KJV means to hinder or restrain. Look at Romans 1:13 for comparison. Don't tell me that you don't understand KJV English well enough to know this.
I am not sure what you issue here is but the KJV translates the word 'paraptoma' as trespass 9 times, offence 7 times, sin 3 times, fall 2 times, and fault only 2 times. Certainly the KJV translators had no problem with the 'trespasses' translation.
These verses mean exactly the same thing except that the NKJV consistently and correctly translates pneuma hagios as Holy Spirit rather than introducing confusion by sometimes translating His name as Holy Ghost:
Mat 1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. (KJV)
20 But while he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. (NKJV)
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2 Tim 2:7 is a ASV reading,
Here is a perfect example of one of the greatest dangers that KJVOnlyism presents to conservative/fundamental Baptist. In this verse the NKJV means exactly what the KJV does. "the Lord give thee" is precisely how KJV English would say "may the Lord give you." The only problem here is that you don't understand the language of your preferred version.
1Thessalonians 5:22 is a ASV reading,
And once again, the problem is with your bias and lack of understanding of KJV English, not the NKJV. The phrases convey the same meanings and implications.
Acts 4:27,30 is a ASV reading which attacks the deity of Christ,
Only if the KJV attacks the deity of Christ by translating the same word as servant in relation to Jesus in Mat 12:18. This Greek word is used 24 times in the NT. The KJV translates it as a form of servant 13 times.
Acts 4:13 is the NASV reading,
Whether it is a NAS
B "reading" or not, it means the same thing as the KJV. Once again the only thing questionable is your diction.
2Tim 2:22 & 2:26 are NASV readings,
... and other than some kind of demented notion of guilt by association, what exactly do you object to?
John 14:2 is a RSV & NASV reading,
Seems to also be a KJV "reading":
John 14:2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. (KJV)
2 "In My Father's house are many mansions; if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. (NKJV)
Do you actually check this stuff out before posting it or do you just blindly follow those blind leaders?
2Tim 4:6 is a NASV reading,
Here's the Strong's entry for this word that only appears twice in the NT.
4689. spendw spendo spen’-do; apparently a primary verb; to pour out as a libation, i.e. (figuratively) to devote (one’s life or blood, as a sacrifice) (" spend"):—(be ready to) be offered.
Acts 17:29 is from the NASV,
So what??? If the NAS
B has a more accurate translation of the same text then the NKJV
should adopt its translation.
1st John 3:4,7 is also a NASV reading.
... which more clearly says the same thing as the KJV.
So you see, the New King Jimmy Version is not like the AV it claims to be from.
Uhhh...
Yeah, you
really proved your point with these verses. The NKJV is very much like the KJV except in the places where the KJV needed to be corrected to a more accurate rendering of the TR.