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A Question for Arminians (or no-name theology believers)

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Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
The first Passover is a perfect parallel to the provisional atonement of Christ. The wrath (the death angel) is coming, but God has made provision (lamb sacrifice) to escape it, but only those who apply the blood to their door post (faith) will escape. The provision (escape) is provided TO ALL, but they must individually meet the demands of that provision.

It is really very simple and we shouldn't over complicate it. We see examples of this kind of thing all time. The teacher says you all can go on the trip if you finish your assignment. The law says the record of a ticket will be removed from your record if you take this safety course...etc etc. Something is provided to all IF they respond by doing something. You will be saved if you believe on his name, period. Don't try to make it so difficult.
 

Amy.G

New Member
The wrath (the death angel) is coming,

Sorry to interrupt but this is pet peeve of mine. There was no death angel. It was God Himself who went through Egypt to kill the first born.


Exodus 12:12 For I will pass through the land of Egypt this night, and will smite all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both man and beast; and against all the gods of Egypt I will execute judgment: I am the LORD.



Ok. Carry on. :)
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Hi AmyG, what do you make of 2 Kings 19:35 and Isaiah 37:36? I think if you do a careful study of all the passages dealing with "the angel of the LORD" you will find sometimes the agent is acting in behalf of the LORD, and at other time, is the LORD. Food for thought.
 

Winman

Active Member
Don't try to bail him out. He said plainly that Christ's death does NOT appease God's wrath against the sinner.

You're saying something completely different. You're saying it does, but a man has to add something to make it effectual.

(Edit: And you're wrong concerning the Passover. Any house with the blood on the lintel and door posts was passed over, and anyone in that house, believing or not, was spared. That most of them were unbelievers we know by their response to the report of the spies.)

Webdog is correct, read John 3:36

John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; BUT THE WRATH OF GOD ABIDETH ON HIM.

Webdog is correct, until you believe God's wrath abides on you.

This is why regeneration cannot possibly precede faith. You cannot possibly have God's grace upon you until you first believe, as God's wrath abides upon you.

Some Calvinists teach that a person can be regenerated by God's grace for years before they actually trust Christ. This is impossible, how can you have God's grace (favor) and be under God's wrath at the same moment? This is absolutely impossible. Therefore, faith must precede receiving God's grace and being regenerated.

And even though Jesus's blood was shed for the remission of our sins, you cannot receive this forgiveness until you first believe, because until you believe God's wrath abides on you.
 

Earth Wind and Fire

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Webdog is correct, read John 3:36

John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; BUT THE WRATH OF GOD ABIDETH ON HIM.

Webdog is correct, until you believe God's wrath abides on you.

This is why regeneration cannot possibly precede faith. You cannot possibly have God's grace upon you until you first believe, as God's wrath abides upon you.

Some Calvinists teach that a person can be regenerated by God's grace for years before they actually trust Christ. This is impossible, how can you have God's grace (favor) and be under God's wrath at the same moment? This is absolutely impossible. Therefore, faith must precede receiving God's grace and being regenerated.

And even though Jesus's blood was shed for the remission of our sins, you cannot receive this forgiveness until you first believe, because until you believe God's wrath abides on you.

So how do you have faith when your dead in sin? How does that happen?
 

Winman

Active Member
So how do you have faith when your dead in sin? How does that happen?

I don't know, but the scriptures sure show that sinners have faith.

Luke 7:50 And he said to the woman, Thy faith hath saved thee; go in peace.

Luke 18:52 And Jesus said unto him, Receive thy sight: thy faith hath saved thee.

Matt 9:29 Then touched he their eyes, saying, According to your faith be it unto you.

Matt 9:2 And, behold, they brought to him a man sick of the palsy, lying on a bed: and Jesus seeing their faith said unto the sick of the palsy; Son, be of good cheer; thy sins be forgiven thee.

Acts 14:9 The same heard Paul speak: who stedfastly beholding him, and perceiving that he had faith to be healed,

Luke 5:20 And when he saw their faith, he said unto him, Man, thy sins are forgiven thee.

Incredible, the scriptures never once say these persons had to be regenerated to have faith, and attributes their faith to themselves.

So, perhaps your doctrine is in error??
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
The first Passover is a perfect parallel to the provisional atonement of Christ. The wrath (the death angel) is coming, but God has made provision (lamb sacrifice) to escape it, but only those who apply the blood to their door post (faith) will escape. The provision (escape) is provided TO ALL, but they must individually meet the demands of that provision.

It is really very simple and we shouldn't over complicate it. We see examples of this kind of thing all time. The teacher says you all can go on the trip if you finish your assignment. The law says the record of a ticket will be removed from your record if you take this safety course...etc etc. Something is provided to all IF they respond by doing something. You will be saved if you believe on his name, period. Don't try to make it so difficult.
When the high priest atoned for the sins of the nation, they were represented on his breastplate. There was not jewel for the Philistines or the Amorites, nor for Edom or Egypt. The sacrifice was effectual for those for whom it was offered, the elect.

Christ, our high priest, did not represent each individual on the cross, only the elect. Those who are not elected were never atoned for.

It is really very simple and you shouldn't over complicate it.
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
Webdog is correct, read John 3:36

John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; BUT THE WRATH OF GOD ABIDETH ON HIM.

Webdog is correct, until you believe God's wrath abides on you.
No, that's not what he was saying. He was saying that one's faith appeases God's wrath, NOT the sacrifice of Christ.
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
When the high priest atoned for the sins of the nation, they were represented on his breastplate. There was not jewel for the Philistines or the Amorites, nor for Edom or Egypt. The sacrifice was effectual for those for whom it was offered, the elect.
The elect NATION of Israel, yes, but within that nation the INDIVIDUALS still had to meet the provision of the atonement for it to be applied. But of course we know now that true righteousness was credited on behalf of the individual's faith whether Jew or Greek.
 

Luke2427

Active Member
Sorry to interrupt but this is pet peeve of mine. There was no death angel. It was God Himself who went through Egypt to kill the first born.


Exodus 12:12 For I will pass through the land of Egypt this night, and will smite all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both man and beast; and against all the gods of Egypt I will execute judgment: I am the LORD.



Ok. Carry on. :)

You're so close. If you just didn't hate Calvinism so much you would come to the truth of it.

When you say things like this it makes me think you are different than some of these others who oppose Calvinism because they have molded a god to suit them.
You seem to be willing to accept the god of the Bible. If you can ever remove your antagonism toward Calvinism based on some wrong preconceived notions, you'll get it.

God bless!
 

Earth Wind and Fire

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You're so close. If you just didn't hate Calvinism so much you would come to the truth of it.

When you say things like this it makes me think you are different than some of these others who oppose Calvinism because they have molded a god to suit them.
You seem to be willing to accept the god of the Bible. If you can ever remove your antagonism toward Calvinism based on some wrong preconceived notions, you'll get it.

God bless!

Then get Calvin's "Golden Booklet of the True Christian Life" written by Calvin & a quick read....small compact book....96 pages & an easy read.

you will find that it will dispel any mis-truth's... examples

Chapters on true humility & respect for others, We should seek the good of other believers, Chapters on the Cross, etc
 

Earth Wind and Fire

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
This is what it means to be a Calvinist to me.....taken from Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones papers on Welsh Calvinistic Methodism

Calvinism leads to feeling, to passion, to warmth, to praise, to thanksgiving. Look at Paul, the greatest of them all. We should not talk about 'Calvinism'; it is Paul's teaching. He tells us that he wept. He preached with tears. Do you? When did we last weep over these matters? When did we last shed tears? When have we shown the feeling and the passion that he shows? Paul could not control himself, he got carried away. Look at his mighty climaxes; look at the way in which he rises to the heavens and is 'lost in wonder, tore, and praise'. Of course, the pedantic scholars criticize him for his anacolutha. He starts a sentence and never finishes it. He starts saving a thing and then gets carried off, and forgets to come back to it. Thank God! It is the truth which he saw that led to these grand climaxes of his; and it is bound to do so. If we understand the things we claim to believe we are bound to end in the same way. 'Who shall separate us from the love of God?' And the answer is, 'I am persuaded'- and in the language of the Welsh Calvinistic Methodists it is much better and stronger- 'I am certain'. It is sure, it is certain, 'that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord'. Or listen to him again at the end of Romans 11, 'O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God.' How often have you had that 'O' in your preaching - you Calvinists ? Calvinism leads to this 'O'! - this feeling, this passion. You are moved to the depths of your being, and you are filled with joy, and wonder, and amazement. 'O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and of the knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!' -and so on. Or take the same thing at the end of Ephesians 3. These are men dominated by a sense of the glory of God, and who are concerned about His praise.
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
The elect NATION of Israel, yes, but within that nation the INDIVIDUALS still had to meet the provision of the atonement for it to be applied.

God's choosing of Israel was only a type and shadow of the true elect nation, the nation of kings and priests, the Church. Atonement was made for the church, not for each individual in the world.
 

glfredrick

New Member
Returning to this (lest webdog insinuate that I don't answer posts):

No, I'm suggesting it is a sin just like any other sin. In the same manner, it cannot be forgiven (attonement applied) until belief occurs, though the payment for that sin is available.

The reference is, "Is unbelief a sin." I think that we both hold, as does the Bible, that unbelief IS a sin. Therefore, if Christ died for "all sins" of "all people" unbelief, as a sin, would be forgiven.

However, you are suggesting that unbelief is not forgiven, which means that you are in fact arguing for Christ's atonement for all people, but not all sins.

As a sin, unbelief is not just a positional shift as you allude, it is a sin that needs to be forgiven, with repentance applied, and by the grace of Christ who paid for that sin as well as all the others.

Follow-up question: How does (or can) one come to Christ if his or her sin(s) are not forgiven?

You and I are closer in belief than it appears on the surface.

That may be true, for I find you less of a universalist than you think you are. You tend to grasp onto the emotional side of the argument, greatly desiring for "all" to be saved whether but you are rather fuzzy about how that happens. I expect that we may make progress in hashing that out in the future if you can let go of the emotional aspects of the argument in favor of the logical and biblical aspects.

One difference I see in the above quote. You appear to think the criteria for God's election is His abitrary decision (ie God chooses "whosoever will" according to some unknown to us factors) while I believe the criteria for God's election is a decision to believe by the individual.

I argue (indeed!) for God's arbitrary decision because that is what the Scriptures say. While I admit (I have to -- EVERY verse of Scripture is for any theology that is truly biblical!) that there are texts that indicate human choice, I cannot see where they transcend or trump God's ultimate sovereignty. In the Scriptures, I find God electing people constantly, often going against conventional human will or tradition. In fact, one of the more detailed and comprehensive theologies of the entire Scriptures is now based on God's election as the center of the Bible, versus dispensations, covenants, etc. It is God's election power, to bring about God's purpose and divine will that we see at work in both the Scriptures and in our life experience.

That God's election FEELS like our own choice is a given. That's the way we are wired, and we, like so many of the characters in the Bible cannot see the spiritual realm that is ever active to accomplish God's will in so many ways as to be astounding in their utter complexity. When I accepted Christ, it "seemed" to me as if I was making a decision, and indeed I was. But, prior to me making that decision (which took me over a year and a half) God put before me a multitude of circumstances -- some extremely focused to my particular situation -- in order that my will would eventually be bent to His, and praise Him, it was and is!

I expect that upon deep examination, virtually every Christian would have a likewise testimony because we cannot "believe in" what (or whom) we do not know, nor can we unite with what we cannot see or grasp. God HAD to reveal Himself to us before we could turn to Him, and His revelation to us was/is part of the grace He extends to us, lest He "harden" us against knowing Him as is also a case we see at times, both in and out of Scripture.

Therefore, while Christ's blood will certainly only cover the sins of believers, it is available to cover the sins of every man if only they would chose to believe.

Here you are fiddling about with the utter power of God to accomplish His divine will. You are also on the edge of blasphemy by suggesting that Christ could not 100% accomplish exactly the purpose for the Father's sending, i.e., to redeem the elect.

The way around this issue is to realize that "all those who chose to believe" ARE the elect, and as such, Christ perfectly satisfied every issue of the Father in securing our salvation by His atonement. He would not, nor actually could not, atone for those who are and would remain lost, or else they would either not be lost (universalism), or if they were atoned for the elect and no longer counted with the reprobates.

There is no "conditional" aspect to the atonement, whereby God must foreknow who will actually believe before He sets in place the mechanism for salvation. That would make man king over God. It can never be! While we have some exercise of our will, it is in keeping with our "position" as being in or out of Christ. We can will to do righteousness once "in Christ" and we can will to continue in sin if "not in Christ." We cannot will righteousness (required if lost persons are responsible for coming to Christ on their own power) nor can we will a return to our lost state once "in Christ" for "we are not our own, we were bought with a price."

(SEE NEXT)
 

glfredrick

New Member
The second thing that sets you and I apart is the part of the quote I bolded. God has told us plainly that He is willing for none to perish, but all to come to repentance (as it says in my sig). This is the verse that most often gets me accused of being a universalist! However, I don't believe all will be saved in the end. I'd like it, but just as I can't get past the verses that deal with free will, I also can't get past the verses that deal with the consequences of dying as an unbeliever.

Welcome to the universal struggle! Every believer who has sat down with the Scriptures and contemplated the actions of God, the sinful life they have lived, and the marvelous expression of free grace offered by the Father through Christ and delivered by the Holy Spirit, has wrestled with all of the above if they are intellectually honest. Nothing about God is so "cut and dried" that we can just take it for granted! In fact, if don't reason through "why me instead of him" sort of questions, we are probably not authentic in our faith, nor have we spent much time in the Word.

Further, if we fail to ask questions like, "What of those yet lost in their sin?" we are in all likelihood not God's sons, for "sons" ask questions like that of their "Father." As a note: We are called "sons" for a reason that is not completely "sexist." According to the promise of Romans 8 and elsewhere, we are "co-heirs with Christ." God, there, caused Paul to use the term "sons" because "sons" inherit," but daughters do not. God is making us "all" {those in Christ} equivalent in our inheritance! Isn't He amazing!

About the "God has told us plainly that He is willing for none to perish, but all to come to repentance..." issue, how do you resolve to reconcile Scripture on this issue? Was it not Christ who said, "Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity." (Matt 7:21-23)

Either we make Jesus a liar, or we work harder to understand what is really being said in passages like 2 Peter 3:9. Let's look at that passage and see if Jesus is a liar, or if God may have meant something other than "all" when He caused the verse "none to perish" to be written.

2 Pet 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

I note first that you cite the last half of that verse, and seem to place the emphasis on the word "none." But, that is not the main clause in that passage, and the word "none" needs to be seen in context of both the passage itself, and the letter that Peter is writing.

In the passage, Peter writes that God is not slack concerning His promise... To whom? To "us" (us-ward in KJV). Who is the "us" of this passage? It is the church to whom Peter is writing, in other words, Peter is writing this passage concerning people who are already believers (and indeed he has just finished warning the believers of "scoffers" (false teachers or those who would lead the congregation astray) who would enter their midst with (in essence) Satanic lies about God's promises. Peter tells us that God does not desire that "none of us" (the congregation, and by inference, the believers in Christ as this passage is handed down for posterity and future generations of "us") should perish, but that "all of us" should come to repentance.

This understanding does not lead to a universal application, as it is intended for believers, and in fact, speaks more of perseverance than it does of atonement and a universal application of the effects of the atonement. And note, I have not "twisted" this passage in any way in order to arrive at this conclusion. All I have done is identified, very simply, who is speaking and to whom. No fancy Greek, etc., just the plain understanding of the passage IN CONTEXT.

Drawing out one phrase of this passage and suggesting that it implies Christ's atonement to all men, when it is not even speaking of such, is where the "twisting" occurs.

About the consequences of dying in sin... You are very right to be concerned about that issue! I said as much above! Those who are not concerned are yet in their sin, for one cannot know God and not be concerned with others who do not know God. But God offers a remedy and a means for those who do not know of Christ and the gospel to find out, and we are not all that worried about that. We would rather make God a universalist -- a failed theology for any number of reasons -- instead of DOING what God plainly said for us to do. Five times, Jesus gave a form of the Great Commission, at the end of each gospel account and in Acts 1:8. Further, the book of Acts is the church obeying the mandate of Christ to carry the gospel to all parts of the world, as were Paul's efforts, recorded in his epistles, John's efforts recorded in his epistles, and Peter's efforts recorded in his epistles. The general concept in the NT is that WE go and do likewise!

Sadly, down through the ages, we've spent a WHOLE lot more time arguing (and killing each other) over doctrines that really have nothing at all to do with obeying God and fulfilling the Great Commandment and the Great Commission. We're really not interested in taking the gospel to all people, we would rather wrangle Scripture to make that unnecessary! Shame on us! God forgive us! As Paul said, "How can they hear without a preacher?"

The admission God makes in 2 Peter 3:9 doesnt make him less of a God or impotent in the least. It makes Him more, more everything, because in essence this admission makes Him capable of giving way to our will. Most gods are dictators, but our God is capable of allowing us to decide if we want Him. He doesn't need to force us into belief or ease us into thinking we want to believe (which strikes me as a form of deception and God cannot decieve) and He is grieved when we don't believe, but He allows us our rebellion and the very grave consequences thereof.
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I'd suggest that your entire take on this, based on a faulty reading of 2 Pet 3:9, is a non-issue. None of what Peter wrote in either of his epistles leads one to hold the sort of free will that you profess. Peter is perhaps the most staunch of all the NT writers concerning the elect and God's sovereignty. He was one who experienced God's election power in his own life and he never forgot it.

But, our God is NOT a dictator. In fact, I keep hearing this as the "antidote" to Calvinism, but NO Calvinist would even suggest that God is a dictator! He is a loving Father, who promises to lead, guide, and discipline His "sons" (see above). He draws us to Himself! Allah is a dictatorial god. Even if he (Allah) says "Go and kill yourself and all these people with you..." his followers go and do without question (even if they don't hear from Allah himself, which is 100% likely!). Our God allows people who are not the elect to turn and go away. He even allows the elect to turn and go away -- for a time -- until He decides the time is right to DRAW them to Himself. That is not dictatorship, that is LOVING RELATIONSHIP by a God who gave His only Son to insure that His will would be done -- for OUR benefit! Can't hardly get more loving than that...

Can God "force" our belief? I'd say, yes, but He mostly doesn't. That's why I suggested that you ask Paul, 10 minutes after his Damascus Road incident... Of course, I guess that some would say that Paul had a choice (I doubt it) but from what I've seen in Scripture, all those who "see" God for who God is have no reservations in coming to Him. Indeed, are we not promised that one day "Every knee will bow and every tongue confess...?" Even those who do not believe will believe once the "see" God.

Our "consequences" are there whether we know them or not. "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God," and "The wages of sin is death." Christ came to save certainly dead sinners (John 3), not to help those who were already alright with God. We are born doomed and damned, and after that, nothing else we do will make a difference. That is a fact of the Bible that cannot be erased by wishful or emotional thinking. It is only those who are "new creation(s)" in Christ that have hope.

Here again is a difference between us. It isn't about God's ability. None of us, I hope, believe that God doesn't have the ability to do exactly what He wants! But what He wants is us to chose Him as He has chosen us.

But, that is exactly what people make of God who suggest that He can only act based on OUR reaction. They make God a God of no ability. Again, we cannot "chose" whom we cannot know, and we cannot know God, nor Christ, unless God reveals Himself to us, which the Bible says is the grace of God.

(SEE NEXT)
 

glfredrick

New Member
So can you to a certain extent, but this doesn't negate free will. When you courted your wife, what did you have to do to get her to say yes? Did any of those things negate the fact that she had to say yes before you could marry her? Did any of those things remove her free will? If she had said "no", would you have forced her? You may have redoubled your efforts, but you couldn't remove her free will. If in the end she had finally had enough and made it clear that you weren't to come around any more you would have had to let her go.

God has one thing you don't have: the ability to negate freewill. To ignore it. To force puny humans to beleve. But He choses not to do so

Neither myself nor my wife are God, nor do either of us command the unlimited abilities and powers of God to both create and to will His divine purpose which WILL be fulfilled, for whom is is that is higher than God? Us? Really? That is a sin of the first magnitude! We may have to disagree about God exercising His divine right to cause we humans to do His will. It is hugely evident in the Scriptures that He does so often. In fact, the case made by some here on the board and down through history is not that God does not, but that the cases recorded in Scripture are not "normative" and that God "typically" does not exercise His divine prerogative toward His created creatures. My question is, "How do we know that?" Do we have the mind of God to know how He has indeed acted or how He has arranged circumstances to bring about His will while making it seem as if we are doing all the choosing?

Let's go back to my example. If in the end your wife had said no, but you carried her off to anther country and forced her to marry you (as was done in ages past) would your marriage be complete and fulfilling? Would you insist on God having a marriage to people who believed out of something other than their own freely chosen decision? Because eventually, if a person doens't believe freely, if they've been somehow manipulated into believing, then eventually they will figure out that belief in God wasn't what they really wanted and they will be incomplete and unfulfilled as a woman forced into marriage. God wants servants, not slaves!

It has happened... But again, in the Scriptures, the Bride of Christ is a MOST willing bride! In fact, we CAN'T WAIT for the marriage supper of the Lamb!

I understand that it is commonly said (even by me) that God will not drag anyone kicking and screaming into His kingdom. I do not believe He will, but it is a mis-reading of Calvinism AND the Scriptures to suggest that He will do that. The Apostle Paul again (may as well use a Scriptural example) certainly did not want to become a follower of Christ. He was already following God with a zeal unlike many humans down through the ages, and he was willing to commit MURDER for the namesake of God. What Paul (Saul) didn't realize was that he was persecuting the very God that he THOUGHT he loved. His "choice" was for God, but the "choice" was wrong. It was when God "coerced" Paul that Paul turned about and truly "loved" God with all his heart, soul, and strength. Paul was "dragged kicking and screaming" into the true kingdom of God, but once there, he had a change of heart and became zealous for Christ, with a love that was as great as any human, ever!

I think it is due time to test the limits of free will, but this post is long enough!
Look for something on that later, probably in another thread.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
Don't try to bail him out. He said plainly that Christ's death does NOT appease God's wrath against the sinner.

You're saying something completely different. You're saying it does, but a man has to add something to make it effectual.

(Edit: And you're wrong concerning the Passover. Any house with the blood on the lintel and door posts was passed over, and anyone in that house, believing or not, was spared. That most of them were unbelievers we know by their response to the report of the spies.)
Don't mince my words. I said faith in Christ appeases God's wrath against sinners. Christ's death is clearly part of the equation.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
Sorry to interrupt but this is pet peeve of mine. There was no death angel. It was God Himself who went through Egypt to kill the first born.


Exodus 12:12 For I will pass through the land of Egypt this night, and will smite all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both man and beast; and against all the gods of Egypt I will execute judgment: I am the LORD.



Ok. Carry on. :)
Wasn't Jesus referred to in the OT as The Angel of God? ;)
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
No, that's not what he was saying. He was saying that one's faith appeases God's wrath, NOT the sacrifice of Christ.
No, that's not what I was saying. You don't understand the atonement, so you will not understand me.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
So how do you have faith when your dead in sin? How does that happen?
In the same way a believer is said to be dead to sin, yet still continues to sin. Until you understand "dead in sin" properly you will not understand the entire concept.
 
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