Hi Hiswitness, I see you are yet another Calvinist who does not read well. So by the numbers,
Are we saved by grace through faith? If you agree with the inspired word you will say yes. If you cannot read, you will say no.
If we are saved by grace through faith, does that mean our faith existed before we were saved? Look at it this way, if you enter a room through a door, did you go through the door before you were in the room? If you can read you will say yes, but you will say no because that is what Calvinism teaches. Hence saved by grace through faith becomes saved by grace and given faith. Not what it says.
If I come to faith does that save me, or does God only save those whose faith He credits as righteousness? If you can read, Romans 4:4-5/24, you will say yes, but you will say no because that is what the mistaken view of Calvinism teaches.
But I am going to take a chance you actually want to learn what scripture teaches, so I am going to explain "faith of Christ" to you.
In the Greek, and you can look at it if you Google an online interlinear, you will see where the KJV reads faith of Christ, the Greek just reads faith Christ. So the translators added of or in because of their understanding of the Greek Grammar. Now if the phrase is in the genitive, which you can also see in the online interlinear, then "of" is the correct translation according to modern scholarship, i.e. Dr. Daniel B. Wallace.
So where does this phrase appear in the text, where both "faith" and the following words (i.e Christ, Jesus Christ, Son, etc) are in the genitive? Here they are:
Romans 3:22 (NASB) “[the righteousness of God has been manifested] even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction;” If we look at the phrase “faith in Jesus Christ” we see in the Greek no connector, no “en” but simply that faith and Jesus and Christ are all in the genitive case. Thus, other translations (YLT and the KJV) render the same construction, “faith of Jesus Christ.” What I suggest is the actual idea Paul had in mind is “Christ’s faithful faith or faithfulness.” Hence, I offer the possible translation, “even the righteousness of God through Jesus Christ’s faithfulness for all those who believe; for there is no distinction.”
This rendering places more glory upon Jesus Christ, is consistent with the grammar, and does not detract from the idea that our belief in Christ helps to gain access to God’s righteousness which was made available through Christ’s faithfulness, His sinless obedience to God’s will, including laying down His life on the cross.
In Romans 3:26, the ending of the verse usually reads “…who has faith in Jesus.” Actually the Greek reads “…the one of the faith of Jesus.” So the idea here is to up the ante, and indicate our faith must be “of” the same kind of faithful faith as Jesus displayed.
When Paul uses the word “faith” he is referring to faithful faith, the live faith of James and not the dead faith of James.
Galatians 2:16 (NASB), “nevertheless, knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law shall no flesh be justified.” Here we see the phrase “in Christ” three times with two of them missing Paul’s idea in my opinion. Here is my alternate rendering: “nevertheless, knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law, but through Christ’s faithfulness, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we may be justified by Christ’s faithfulness, and not by works of the Law, since by the works of the Law, shall no flesh be justified.” I think this was Paul’s actual message.
In Galatians 3:22, we find “promise through faith in Jesus Christ” but would better rendered “promise through Jesus Christ’s faithfulness.”
As you can see, the "faith of Christ" or Christ's faithfulness should only appear in these five examples. Where the two words are not both in the genitive, then faith in Christ is the proper translation according to modern scholarship. Thus, the actual text provides absolute no support for the Calvinist doctrine that Christ's faith is in view where the text reads "faith Christ" (not both in genitive) or when the text has the word meaning "in" between them (i.e. faith (en)in Christ. No way to translate that accurately as anything but faith in Christ.
So where "faith of Christ" appears in the text, it should be translated as Christ's faithfulness or "faithfulness of Christ." Note the KJV also translates "faith of Christ" in other verses but in those cases, both words are not in the genitive and should be translated faith in Christ.
I hope I did not waste my time.
iv read all these threads on this topic,and i would like to comment.First of allEphesians 2 8-9--for by grace are ye savedtrrough faith;and that not of yourselves;IT is the gift of god.NOT of works,lest any man should boast---now it is true that through faith are we saved,but look closely;alot of baptists doesnt see what this is saying--it is a gift of god--the it here is talking about the faith,so faith is a gift from god-you dont have it before hand its a gift--other wise it would be your work comming to god--but it says not of works lest you should BOAST of yourself---Galatians chap 2 v-20--Paul says hes crucified with Christ,i live,yet not i,but Christ in me---and the life i now live in the flesh I live BY the faith OF the SON of GOD,who love me and gave himself for me-----------So NOTHING you can bring to God because you have NOTHING,My friends GOD gives it all according to his graceand not of works.i shall say then that its whom the LORD loves andwhom he gave his life for that shall have his salvation and its according to Election as the same apostle states in another text. P.S pls forgive me for not getting every dot right,and may God bless you with HIS truth