definately not, It is not" made" as in created It is
eiserchomai or kathistēmi
- to come
- of persons
- to come from one place to another, and used both of persons arriving and of those returning
- to appear, make one's appearance, come before the public
- metaph.
- to come into being, arise, come forth, show itself, find place or influence
- be established, become known, to come (fall) into or unto
- to go, to follow one
kathistēmi
to set, place, put
- to set one over a thing (in charge of it)
- to appoint one to administer an office
- to set down as, constitute, to declare, show to be
- to constitute, to render, make, cause to be
- to conduct or bring to a certain place
- to show or exhibit one's self
- come forward as
neither word has Adam's sin create sin in us
If that phrase were alone without other plainly stated contextual descriptives you might have possible grounds for your objection. However, it is not found alone but it is in connection with previous statements that repeat "by one man's disobedience" not only were many man constituted sinners but "condemned" and and "be dead". All of these must be considered together because they are inseparably related to each other and justified by "one man's disobedience" rather than any personal disobediences on their part.
There is no justification for individual "condemnation" or "be dead" if not for the fact they were "made sinners" due to one man's sin. You cannot separate these from each other and your problem is AT BIRTH all of these are present as you very well know infants are subject to death IN THE WOMB before being able to commit any individualized sin(s). Your view makes a mockery out of Paul's repeated sole grounds for all these things which is "by one man's disobedience" rather than anything found in his descendants.
There is no justification for "condemnation...be dead....made sinners" other than the very same thing Paul repeats over and over "by one man's disobedience" thus repudiating any causes or grounds of justification found in these individuals or in whatever sins they might do after birth.
It is not a PERSON that is being described but "death." Second, it is not found in the future tense thus referring to future sins men might do, but it is aorist tense which agrees in tense with "sinned" as an already completed action.
No, between Adam and Moses there was no Law to be judged by , no standard of conduct
Rom 5:13
(For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
yet we were considered sinners for all have sinned.
First, sin is the transgression of the law - not merely Mosaic law as John 3:6 does not say "Mosaic law" or "the law of Moses." There is also the law of conscience (Rom. 2:15) but neither of these laws can explain UNIVERSAL death between Adam and Moses as infants do not violate the law of conscience when they suffer death in the womb and adults do not violate the Mosaic law as it did not exist in this period. However, there is one law that did exist and does explain UNIVERSAL death during this period and that is the law of Genesis 2:17. Paul said "in Adam all die" and that is due to being in UNION with the Adamic human nature and that whole of human nature existed and acted in an undivided state "in Adam" when Adam sinned.
Moreover, Paul does not use the future tense in romans 5:12 as in "SHALL enter" or "SHALL pass upon" or "all men SHALL sin" but he uses the same Aorist tense used behind "sinned" showing simeltaneous completed action with all these verbs. At the completed point of sin, death entered at that point in time and at that same point in time death "passed" upon men because at that same point in time when Adam sinned "all have sinned" and he reasserts this over and over in verses 15-19 by repeatedly saying "by one man's disobedience many "be dead....condemned....made sinners" thus repudiating completely any exposition that would claim Adam's sin merely "affected" all men actually constituted them as justly "condemned" justly "be dead" spiritually and justly "made sinners" by that one action by one man.
For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
Rom 5:18
¶
Therefore as by the offence of one
judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one
the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
So the chapter does not show the reason for sin in Adam but that sin of one affects many
Here are two men representing two different groups of people. All human beings were created "in Adam" but not all human beings are created "in Christ" but all who are supernaturally created in Christ" receive him. All mankind is NATURALLY born "in Adam" but not all mankind is NATURALLY born "in Christ." Being "in Christ is by SUPERNATURAL birth (Eph. 2:10). This is the meaning of John 1:10-13 where universal rejection by Jews and by Gentiles is asserted in John 1:9-11 thus NOBODY RECEIVED HIM. Those who do receive him is due to supernatural birth not by the will of man - Jn. 1:12-13. Verse 12 asserts the human response while verse 13 provides the divine cause for that response because naturally no man receives him (vv. 8-11).
Don't you believe that human beings are sinners by nature when born? If not, then explain why they are subject to "death" which is the "condemnation" for violating law (Gen. 2:17; Rom. 5:12).