I don't disagree with this one iota, but His flesh still came from Mary, who came from the lineage of David, and thusly, Isaac(He came from Judah's lineage, to be more precise), and she had a sin nature. How does this sin nature escape Jesus if He was tempted in all points the same as we. Listen, Jesus' flesh was sinless, pristine, immaculate, perfect, never with one sin(except when the sin of the world was placed upon Him), so then how did it circumvent Him, if sin is passed down from Adam?
IMHO the nature of Adam concerning death came in the flesh, because of our sins and or the sin of the world, was passed to him through the seed of the woman and for birth to not also bring forth sin it was necessary for the woman to be a virgin and for the generator, Father, to be the Spirit God.
I believe this passage is referring to virgin birth. YLT 1 John 5:6 This one is he who
did come through water and blood -- Jesus the Christ, not in the water only, but in
the water and
the blood;
Something about the eating of the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil bringing forth trespasses
and sins bringing death is of a sexual nature thus the necessity of the woman, taken from the man created in the image of God, being a virgin from whom the lamb without spot or blemish ordained, from before the man was created, would come into the world for redemption in his
blood, death.
The eating of the fruit corrupted the purity of the last two verses of chapter 2 of Genesis.
Jesus said that when God said; For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Matt. 19:5 That God married them: Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
And in that purity of the beginning it was not so there needed not to be a bill of divorcement. Read all of Matt 19:5-15 and Gen 2:23 -3:19 and compare keeping in mind how all this is relative to the kingdom of God. Especially when in the story of the rich man and Lazarus which concerns the kingdom of God the passage used in Matt 19:9 is used there also yet seems out of place.
Let me know what you think.
I think this is relative to the OP?